Day: April 27, 2018

The subject of this assignment is Professional Development in Business. There are 4 parts in total, but you only need to do entry 1 (a speech for me to read in my video presentation, approx. 200 words), entry 2, and entry 4. Entry 3 is done by myself and is attached (Summary.docx), you can use entry 3 as a reference to write the speech for entry 1, entry 2, and entry 4.

The following are the instructions (the original document of the instructions are attached(Ass 4 SP5 2016.docx), you can find the feedback sheet for marking this assignment in the bottom of the document):

BUSS 1060: Assignment, Portfolio, 40%
IMPORTANT NOTE: Late submissions will NOT be accepted. In a real life situation, presenting your application for a real job even 1 minute late means it would NOT be accepted.

ENTRY 1 (Nothing to do with the video but I need you to write me a speech to read in my video recording for this part. approx. 200 words): Introducing yourself (approx. 90 seconds)
This component must be submitted as a video file. Please upload your video file in MP4 format to the link provided. More information will be provided closer to the submission due date. Because this is a video representation of your professional self, please remember to dress smartly (for business).
There are three parts to this entry

1. Elevator Pitch
Provide a one paragraph introduction which describes you in terms of your professional experience, skills and aspirations. Imagine that you might use this description to describe yourself at a networking event. Refer to notes from your tutorial on developing an %u0432%u0402˜elevator pitch%u0432%u0402%u2122.
2. Career Inspirations
Provide one paragraph on who has or continues to inspire you. They do not need to be a business person but may inspire you in terms of their view on life or business. Explain why they are an inspiration.
3. Career Aspirations
Describe your career aspirations in your chosen field. Refer to your notes from Assignment One about the type of organisation and/or field you are hoping to work in. Have your aspirations changed during the course? Please explain.

ENTRY 2: Self-analysis against industry/professional standards (approx. 500 words)

1. Analyse your current level of development against standards for professional practice (Lectures 1 & 2 or any other industry/professional standards relevant to your profession).

%u0432%u0402%u045E Clearly identify the industry/professional standards that relate to your future profession. Remember, more than one set of standards might apply to your future profession. Eg an HR manager working in the medical field needs to meet or comply with standards relating to the medical profession as well as management standards. It is a good idea to be quite specific here.
2. Present a simple SWOT analysis: Outline your Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats to demonstrate how you currently meet (or don%u0432%u0402%u2122t meet) the requirements of your identified industry/professional standards.

ENTRY 3: Networking (attachment: Summary.docx)
This entry consists of two parts:
Part 1: LinkedIn
%u0432%u0402%u045E Set up a Professional Networking Profile, using LinkedIn (www.linkedin.com) or a similar professional networking tool. It is important to note Facebook, Google + and MySpace are not acceptable – it must be a professional networking site, not a social networking site.

The following minimum profile fields must be completed:
%u0432%u0402%u045E Photo – note, this should be a professional representation of you, not a photo taken at a party, at the beach etc. If for any reason, you do not feel comfortable uploading a photo of yourself, please speak to your tutor. (Formal business dress required, NOT evening wear)
%u0432%u0402%u045E Summary – a summary of ‘who you are’ professionally, and your career goal for the next two years (i.e. when you graduate, what kind of a role will you be looking for)
%u0432%u0402%u045E Work Experience – including Employer’s name, employment dates and your responsibilities
%u0432%u0402%u045E Education – including your current course of education, and prior studies (including High School and the years of completion)
%u0432%u0402%u045E Honours and Awards – any awards you have received, such as the Dean’s Merit List, School Captain in High School, Sporting Team Captain etc. including relevant details such as the date & name of the award
%u0432%u0402%u045E You may choose to complete additional fields as applicable to you.

As this is your professional profile, and you will be using it to contact potential employers and professional contacts, you will need to ensure your profile is well written, structured and edited, and uses professional language with correct grammar and spelling. A strong emphasis is placed on correct use of language and grammar which is reflected in marks allocation.

Once your profile is complete, take a screen shot of your profile (including your photo) and include as an appendix in this portfolio. Assignments submitted without this screen shot will be penalised by 5 marks.
Part 2: Curriculum Vitae/Resume
Using the information in your LinkedIn profile, format a concise Curriculum Vitae as a word document , following the advice provided by Career Services.
The following minimum profile fields must be completed:
%u0432%u0402%u045E Photo – note, this should be a professional representation of you, not a photo taken at a party, at the beach etc. If for any reason, you do not feel comfortable uploading a photo of yourself, please speak to your tutor. (Formal business dress required, NOT evening wear). ***Normally you would not include a photo; however, to ensure you promote yourself appropriately, we are requesting a photo for this assignment only.

%u0432%u0402%u045E Summary – a summary of ‘who you are’ professionally, and your career goal for the next two years (i.e. when you graduate, what kind of a role will you be looking for)

%u0432%u0402%u045E Work Experience – including Employer’s name, employment dates and your responsibilities

%u0432%u0402%u045E Education – including your current course of education, and prior studies (also High School)

%u0432%u0402%u045E Honours and Awards – any awards you have received, such as the Dean’s Merit List, School Captain in High School, Sporting Team Captain etc. including relevant details such as the date & name of the award

%u0432%u0402%u045E You may choose to complete additional fields as applicable to you.

As this is your professional profile, and you will be using it to contact potential employers and professional contacts, you will need to ensure your profile is well written, structured and edited, and uses professional language. A strong emphasis is placed on correct use of language and grammar which is reflected in marks allocation.

Please note, you may choose to submit a Linked in profile or a CV.
Whichever you do choose, please remember to use appropriate formatting for the different documents.

ENTRY 4: Career Management Plan

This entry consists of two parts:

Part 1: Career Action Plan (approx. 750 words)
Find a position which you believe you will be qualified for and well suited to five years after graduation. This could be the same position you used for the information interview or something different. Following the example provided on the course homepage, write an Action Plan which details the steps you will take to ensure that you would be the successful candidate for this position five years after you graduate. Scan the advertisement and job description for this position and attach it to the documentation already completed. You may need to contact someone in the organisation to request a position description, or check the organisation%u0432%u0402%u2122s website. (Consider the organisation you referred to in Assignments 1 and 2.)

Part 2: Responses to Selection Criteria (approx. 750-1000 words)
When applying for positions throughout your career, you will commonly be asked to address certain ‘selection criteria’ as part of submitting your application, along with a cover letter and curriculum vitae (CV). There are many common selection criteria that can be asked, either as part of your written application, or during an interview process.

For Part 3 of this assessment, you are required to address all four selection criteria below as they relate to the skills, knowledge and experience that you have now, as a current University student (i.e. don’t write your responses as if you are applying for the position you found in your action plan, write them as if you are applying for a position now. This position could be any position suitable to your current qualifications and experience.)

Please address the following criteria:
%u0432%u0402%u045E Highly developed written communication skills, including the ability to draft clear and concise documentation;

%u0432%u0402%u045E Demonstrated organisational ability and initiative, including experience in prioritising and meeting deadlines, often with competing demands;

%u0432%u0402%u045E Strong interpersonal skills and a demonstrated ability to successfully communicate with a diverse range of people at all levels of an organisation;

%u0432%u0402%u045E Demonstrated experience in working collaboratively in a team based environment.

Note: The above selection criteria have been sourced from real position descriptions for entry level positions within a corporate environment.

The response to each selection criteria should be around 250 words in length, and use the STAR model to address your suitability in each criteria. The STAR model follows the following format:

1. Situation – Outline a specific circumstance where you developed the particular experience or
used the required skills or qualities. Set the context of the situation.
2. Task – What was your role? What did you have to do?
3. Actions – What did you do and how did you do it?
4. Results – What did you achieve? What were the results of what you did?

The above model should be written using an appropriate (paragraph) format and should succinctly describe a particular situation that provides clear and concise evidence to demonstrate where you have used the particular skill or knowledge in real life, with a tangible, reportable outcome. You may choose to format this information using a table format. If so, landscape page layout is recommended.

Please note that the experience you draw from to address the criteria can include experiences at university, in part-time/full time work, community roles such as in a church group, volunteer positions or in sporting teams.

Your response should be very carefully edited to ensure no grammatical or spelling errors – with increasingly high numbers of applicants for positions, employers will disregard an application immediately if errors such as spelling are present, no matter how good the content!

The STAR model will be covered in the career management topic in the course, and you can also find more information at the following websites (and many others):
http://jobaccess.gov.au/content/how-write-selection-criteria

http://www.bom.gov.au/careers/guide2SC.shtml (this provides good advice for how to address the criteria, and steps to take to assist with the STAR model)

I have project (Comprehensive Literature Review project) � final report + Reflection

The topic is Research – Information Literacy research of Annmaree Lloyd

Annmaree Lloyd: has profile in google which https://anniemlloyd.com/

The important points:

1- I have done the project brief (Plan) you have to have a look on this to do the report. �find the (project brief (plan) + feedback from supervisor) �attached.

2- I have done the annotated bibliography + search strategy �please find (annotated bibliography + Feedback)� attached. Please see the feedback from supervisor and work on it.

3- I want you to write final report + Reflection maximum 10000 words by following the structure (requirements) �find the (structure + criteria) file attached.

Note: you have to follow the brief any change is unacceptable. Please follow the brief.

The words limited is 10000 words or less NO MORE

4- No plagiarism.

5- APA Style.

6- I have collected the articles (Lloyd�s publications) �find it in Drobox.https://www.dropbox.com/sh/gy6940e69v8m8wy/AABuloBCzn3FNmLs3cCbgzXPa?dl=0

Note: if you need to use other articles by Lloyd that I did not download, you can use.

Note: I do not have time please work on all feedback and requairments .

Please do your best. And work in follow same structure and feedback that you have done with Bruce�s report.

Note: Do not forget to use other authors in the field of IL (not Lloyd).

Statement of Financial Position At December 31, 2014 (in thousands of euro) Assets Goodwill and intangible assets 1,210 Less: Accumulated depreciation (2,240) Total non-current assets (1,030) Current assets: Cash 5,300 Inventory 1,800 Total current assets 7,100 Total assets 6,070 Equity and Liabilities Shareholders’ equity: Contributed capital 400 Total shareholders’ equity 400 Total non-current liabilities 0 Current liabilities: Total current liabilities 0 Total liabilities 0 Total liabilities and shareholders’ equity 400 Glücklich Golfspieler (GG) is a golf club company headquartered in Germany. The company began its 2014 fiscal year with assets totalling 10.0 million euro but ended the year (on December 31, 2014) with total assets of 13.2 million euro. Account balances on December 31, 2014, appear below (in thousands of euro). Accounts Payable 900 Accounts Receivable 460 Accrued Liabilities 990 Accumulated Depreciation 2,240 Buildings and Equipment 5,600 Cash 5,300 Contributed Capital 400 Goodwill and Intangible Assets 1,210 Inventory 1,800 Land 190 Notes Payable, due 2016 735 Other Long-Term Liabilities 1,325 Other Noncurrent Assets 540 Prepaid Expenses 340 Profit for the Year (Net Income) 4,000 Retained Earnings, Jan. 1, 2014 4,850 Sales Revenues 38,000 1. Prepare a statement of financial position at December 31, 2014

ACCOUNTING CYCLE PROBLEM The following is a trial balance and certain other information relating to Mr. I. Spend Freely, a financial consultant operating as a corporation. I. SPEND FREELY, FINANCIAL CONSULTANT TRIAL BALANCE DECEMBER 31, 2016 Debit Cash Accounts receivable Credit $ 31,500 49,600 Allowance for doubtful accounts $ Supplies Inventory 1,960 Prepaid insurance 1,100 Furniture & Equipment 750 25,000 Accumulated depreciation – equipment 6,250 Notes payable 7,200 Common stock 20,000 Retained earnings 15,010 Service revenue 100,000 Rent expense Salaries and wages expense 9,750 28,500 Utilities expense 1,080 Office expense 720 $149,210 $149,210 The following information is available as of December 31, 2016. 1. Fees were received in advance from clients and treated as revenue: $6,000 2. Services performed for clients that were not recorded by 12/31/16 or paid by clients: $4,900 3. Bad debt expense for the year: $1,430 4. Insurance premiums expired during the year: $480 5. Equipment is being depreciated at 10% per year. 6. Mr. Freely gave the bank a 90-day note on December 1, 2016 for $7,200. The note has an interest rate of 10% annually. 7. Rent on the building is $750 per month. The rent for all of 2016 and January, 2017 has been paid. 8. Office salaries and wages earned but unpaid as of 12/31/16: $2,510 9. Mr. Freely withdrew dividends of $17,000 during the year. The dividends were debited to retained earnings at the time the disbursements were made. 10. Assume the corporation has no income tax liability. Required: From the trial balance and other information given, please prepare the following as of December 31, 2016. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. Adjusting entry general journal 10-column worksheet (use of MSExcel required on this part of the problem) Income statement Statement of retained earnings Balance sheet Closing entry general journal Extra Credit – Worth 6 additional points 1. Prepare the reversing entries. Please note: City University of Seattle uses software which tests for originality of work. Plagiarized work will result in a “0” grade for the assignment.

My collected data is secondary data from RIOT company and Twitch TV.com Please follow the Guideline You need to explain how you are getting your data, from where or whom. You must explain how you obtained and analyzed your results for the following reasons: 1. Readers need to know how the data was obtained because the method you chose affects the findings and, by extension, how you likely interpreted them. 2. Methodology is crucial for any branch of scholarship because an unreliable method produces unreliable results and, as a consequence, undermines the value of your interpretations of the findings. 3. In most cases, there are a variety of different methods you can choose to investigate a research problem. The methodology section of your paper should clearly articulate the reasons why you chose a particular procedure or technique. 4. The reader wants to know that the data was collected or generated in a way that is consistent with accepted practice in the field of study. For example, if you are using a multiple choice questionnaire, readers need to know that it offered your respondents a reasonable range of answers to choose from. 5. The method must be appropriate to fulfilling the overall aims of the study. For example, you need to ensure that you have a large enough sample size to be able to generalize and make recommendations based upon the findings. 6. The methodology should discuss the problems that were anticipated and the steps you took to prevent them from occurring. For any problems that do arise, you must describe the ways in which they were minimized or why these problems do not impact in any meaningful way your interpretation of the findings. 7. In the social and bahavioral sciences, it is important to always provide sufficient information to allow other researchers to adopt or replicate your methodology. This information is particularly important when a new method has been developed or an innovative use of an exisiting method is utilized.

ACCOUNTING CYCLE PROBLEM The following is a trial balance and certain other information relating to Mr. I. Spend Freely, a financial consultant operating as a corporation. I. SPEND FREELY, FINANCIAL CONSULTANT TRIAL BALANCE DECEMBER 31, 2016 Debit Cash Accounts receivable Credit $ 31,500 49,600 Allowance for doubtful accounts $ Supplies Inventory 1,960 Prepaid insurance 1,100 Furniture & Equipment 750 25,000 Accumulated depreciation – equipment 6,250 Notes payable 7,200 Common stock 20,000 Retained earnings 15,010 Service revenue 100,000 Rent expense Salaries and wages expense 9,750 28,500 Utilities expense 1,080 Office expense 720 $149,210 $149,210 The following information is available as of December 31, 2016. 1. Fees were received in advance from clients and treated as revenue: $6,000 2. Services performed for clients that were not recorded by 12/31/16 or paid by clients: $4,900 3. Bad debt expense for the year: $1,430 4. Insurance premiums expired during the year: $480 5. Equipment is being depreciated at 10% per year. 6. Mr. Freely gave the bank a 90-day note on December 1, 2016 for $7,200. The note has an interest rate of 10% annually. 7. Rent on the building is $750 per month. The rent for all of 2016 and January, 2017 has been paid. 8. Office salaries and wages earned but unpaid as of 12/31/16: $2,510 9. Mr. Freely withdrew dividends of $17,000 during the year. The dividends were debited to retained earnings at the time the disbursements were made. 10. Assume the corporation has no income tax liability. Required: From the trial balance and other information given, please prepare the following as of December 31, 2016. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. Adjusting entry general journal 10-column worksheet (use of MSExcel required on this part of the problem) Income statement Statement of retained earnings Balance sheet Closing entry general journal Extra Credit – Worth 6 additional points 1. Prepare the reversing entries. Please note: City University of Seattle uses software which tests for originality of work. Plagiarized work will result in a “0” grade for the assignment.

Question

Biology 103

FINAL EXAMINATION, 2016

Name:____________________________________

Date: _________________________________

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: This final exam is worth 100 points.

There are three sections. The Multiple Choice section has 50questions worth 1 point each, for a total of 50 points. Fill-In the Blanks section has 7 questions for a total of 10 points. For the Short Answer section, you must choose to answer 8 of the 12 questions, and each question is worth 5 points, for a total of 40 points.

Multiple Choices:

Answer ALL of the questions in this section of the exam. Indicate your answer by highlighting your choice. Each question is worth 1 point.

1.Which of the following can be considered definitions of “theory”?

A)A theory can be an explanation of scientific laws.

B)A theory is an integrated explanation of numerous hypotheses, each supported by a large body of observations.

C)A theory is a condensation and simplification of many data that previously appeared unrelated.

D)A theory is a prediction for new data suggesting new relationships among a range of natural phenomena.

E)All of the above.

2. A gamate (cell) carries only one allele for each inherited character because the two alleles separate from each other during gamate production (meiosis). This statement defines

A) Monohybrid cross

B) Law of segregation

C) Genotype

D) Homologous chromosomes

E) All of the above

3.What is the correct sequence of steps in the scientific method?

I. State a problem

II. Analyze and interpret data

III. Develop a hypothesis

IV. Share the results with other scientists

V. Design and perform experiment to test the hypothesis

A)I – II -III -IV – V

B)III – I -V– II –IV

C)V – IV –III – II – I

D)I – III – V– II – IV

E)V – II –I – III -IV

4.To test a hypothesis about a given variable, experimental and control groups are tested in parallel. Which of the following best explains the dual experiments?

A)In the experimental group, a chosen variable is altered in a known way. In the control group, that chosen variable is not altered so a comparison can be made.

B)In the control group, a chosen variable is altered in a known way. In the experimental group, that chosen variable is not altered so a comparison can be made.

C)In the experimental group, a chosen variable plus all other variables are altered. In the control group, the chosen variable is altered; however, all other variables are held constant.

D)In the experimental and control groups, two different variables are altered.

E)Experimental and control groups experiments are identical and run in parallel to get repeatable results.

5. The smallest unit of life is the

A) cell

B) organelle

C) macromolecule

D) atom

6.You examine a cell under a microscope and you do not see a well defined nucleus. You conclude the cell must a _____________________ cell.

A) prokaryotic

B) eukaryotic

C) plant

D) animal

7. All of the following are examples of elements except?

A)oxygen

B) water

C) hydrogen

D)carbon

8.Two atoms with the same atomic number, but different mass numbers are called_________.

A)radioactive

B)isotopes

C)proteins

D)electrons

E)nuclei

9. Select the element that is not one of the four most common elements in living matter.

A)carbon

B)hydrogen

C)nitrogen

D)oxygen

E)phosphorous

10.Edward was found to heterozygous (Ss) for the sickle-cell trait. The alleles represented by the letters S and s are

A. on the X and Y chromosomes

B. linked

C. on homologous chromosomes

D. both are present in each of Edward’s sperm cells

E. none of the above

11.The building blocks of proteins are

A. fatty acids

B. amino acids

C. nucleotides

D. carbohydrates

12. A substance with a pH greater than 7 is ___, while a substance with a pH less than 7 is___.

A)basic, acidic

B)acidic, basic

C)basic, neutral

D)neutral, acidic

E)neutral, basic

13.The bond in which 2 atoms share one or more pairs of electrons is a ______________ bond.

A)polar

B)hydrogen

C)ionic

D)covalent

14.The energy required for photosynthesis is provided by?

A)proteins

B)sunlight

C)chlorophyll

D)carbohydrates

E)lipids

15.The term below that includes the other terms is

A)atom

B)molecule

C)electron

D)element

16.An element has 43 protons and 50 neutrons. The atomic number of the element is

A)43

B)50

C)86

D)93

E)100

17.The diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane is called ______.

A)facilitated diffusion

B)active transport

C)osmosis

D)phagocytosis

E)endocytosis

18.A dog gets many nutrients from its food including amino acids. Which of these can be built directly using the amino acids?

A)proteins

B)carbohydrates

C)lipids

D)nucleic acids

E)glucose

19.Most carbohydrates in the human body are ___________________________.

A)used as building blocks for proteins

B)used as catalysts for reactions in cells

C)consumed as a source of energy

D)not easily absorbed into the bloodstream

E)not necessary for regular bodily functions

20.A scientist removed the plasma membranes from bacteria cells in a culture. She analyzed the cell membranes for specific molecules. Which of these was probably the most common type of molecule present in the bacteria plasma membranes?

A)carbohydrate

B)nucleic acid

C)amino acid

D)lipid

E)ATP

21.The site of protein synthesis in the cell is ___________________________.

A)the mitochondria

B)the nucleus

C)the Golgi apparatus

D)the ribosomes

22.Cyanide is a poison that prevents mitochondria from using oxygen. As a result, the mitochondria cannot produce

A)lipids

B)proteins

C)energy

D)sugars

E)nucleic acids

23. The replication of DNA ___________________________________________.

A)produces RNA molecules

B)produces completely new strands of DNA

C)produces two DNA molecules, each of which is half-“new” and half-“old” DNA

D)generates excessive DNA, which eventually causes the nucleus to divide

24.The form of RNA that is complementary to DNA and carries the code from the DNA to the site where the protein is synthesized is

A)messenger RNA

B)nuclear RNA

C)ribosomal RNA

D)transfer RNA

25.If the amounts of bases in a DNA molecule are measured, you would find that

A)A = C and G=T

B)A = G and C=T

C)T = A and C =G

D)A = U and C=G

E)U = Cand A =G

26.In humans, the allele for dimples (D) is dominant.The allele for not having dimples (d) is recessive. If a woman (DD) and a man (Dd) have four children, how many of the children will not have dimples?

A)0

B) 1

C) 2

D) 3

E) 4

27.Which of these statements best explains how genes and proteins are related?

A)Genes are segments of DNA that code for proteins.

B) Proteins are segments of DNA that code for genes.

C) Genes are segments of proteins that code for DNA.

D) Proteins are the building blocks of genes.

E) Genes are the building blocks of proteins.

28.Which of the following could not be a sequence of RNA?

A)GCGUUU

B)UAUGCG

C)ATGCGT

D)AUGCGU

E)AAACUG

29.Information stored in DNA is transferred from the nucleus to the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells in the form of

A)lipids

B)DNA

C)RNA

D)proteins

E)carbohydrates

30.Researchers are studying slider turtles. Slider turtles hatch on the beach and travel to the sea. The researchers discover that the larger baby turtles were more likely to survive than the smaller baby turtles. They hypothesized that the larger turtles could move more quickly toward the water than the smaller turtles, and therefore, the larger turtles reduced their exposure to predators. The survival advantage for the larger baby turtles is a result of ______.

A)natural selection

B)genetic engineering

C)diversity

D)artificial selection

E)migration

31.The theory of natural selection states that

A) some live and some die in each generation.

B) only the largest and strongest survive.

C) random assortment of genes results in better characteristics in the following generations.

D)the best adapted individuals survive and reproduce, contributing the most genes to the next

generation.

E)individuals that mutate in response to their environment will survive.

32.Inheritable mutations, which may allow a population to evolve, are produced

A)by chance

B)as a response to environmental

C)as a response to selection pressure

D)by natural selection

E)by artificial selection

33.A man has type B blood and a woman has type A blood. Their children could have the following:

A. A,B, or O

B. AB only

C. AB or O

D. A, B, AB, or O

34.In a deciduous oak forest of the American northeast, one example of an abiotic component of the ecosystem would be ____________________________.

A)worms in the soil that feed on plant roots

B)worms in the soil that feed on dead organic matter

C)sunlight that filters through the canopy

D)animals such as deer that migrate through the forest but do not eat in the forest

E)plants and animals in the same area

35.Which of the following activities decreases greenhouse gases in the atmosphere?

A) Cutting down trees.

B)Driving gasoline powered vehicles.

C)Using electricity from coal-powered plants.

D) Planting trees.

E) Heating your home.

36. If a bird eats an insect that ate a plant, the bird would be considered a(n)

A)autotroph

B)primary producer

C)primary consumer

D)secondary consumer

E)tertiary consumer

37.When energy is converted from one form to another, some of the original energy is “lost” as

A)water

B)heat

C)electrons

D)mechanical energy

E)electrical energy

38.The statement best describes the relationship between plants and animals on earth is

A)plants produce O2and sugars from CO2

B)animals produce CO2and H2O from sugars and O2

C)plants produce O2and sugars and animals produce CO2and H2O

D)animals produce O2and sugars and plants produce CO2and H2O

39.What do plants and animals have in common?

A)They are both heterotrophic.

B)They are both autotrophic.

C)They are both prokaryotic.

D)They are both eukaryotic.

E)The are both hydrophobic

40.To convert RNA genome into DNA, the HIV virus uses the enzyme

A) DNA polymerase

B) DNA ligase

C) Reverse transcriptase

D) Protease

E) None of the above

41.Elephants travel long distances in search of food. Using vibrations felt in the ground, family members traveling separately can communicate with each other. Based on your knowledge of evolution, the ability to communicate over long distances probably developed__________.

A)slowly over millions of years

B)by accident

C)over a ten year period

D)as a strategy to decrease reproduction

E)as a way to communicate with humans

42.The plasma membrane is _____________________.

A)completely permeable

B)selectively permeable

C)impermeable

D)found only in eukaryotic cells

E)found only in prokaryotic cells

43. The electron transport system involve

A. electron transfer

B. enzymes, coenzymes

C. cell membranes

D. all of the above

44.Certain fungi that are important in nutrient recycling because they release nutrients from dead organisms back into the ecosystem are_____________________.

A)producers

B)consumers

C)decomposers

D)recyclers

E)feeders

45.Humans are ______.

A) ecosystems

B) consumers

C) decomposers

D) cells

E)producers

46.One of the end products of respiration is _____________.

A)glucose

B) starch

C)sucrose

D) water

E)oxygen

47. A protein molecule, which is denatured, has __________________________.

A)split into smaller molecules

B)changed its shape

C)combined with another molecule

D)been diluted

48.___________________ is the term that refers to the energy-requiring movement of a substance across a biological membrane.

A)facilitated diffusion

B)active transport

C)osmosis

D)diffusion

E)endocytosis

49.All of the following are characteristics of life except ____________________________.

A)growth

B)homeostasis

C)movement

D)reproduction

E)energy use

50.The regulation of gene expression must be more complex in multicellular eukaryotes than in prokaryotes because

A)eukaryotic cells are much larger

B)prokaryotes are restricted to more stable environments

C) in multicellular eukaryotes, different cells are specialized for different

functions

D)eukaryotes have fewer genes than prokaryotes so each gene must do more

than one function

E)all of these make sense

Fill-in each blank with the appropriate word(s) to complete the sentences. Each completed sentence is worth 1 point.

51. There are two major categories of cells. These categories are _______ cells, which include bacteria, and _________, which include fungi.

52. Tumors that remain at their site of origin are called sacromas while tumors from which cells migrate to other body tissues are called __________.

53. You are given one strand of DNA that has the sequence 5’GAATGC-3’. The complementary strand is _________.

54. The genetic makeup of an organism is called it________, while the physical traits of an organism are called its________.

55. __________ is the diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane.

56. The production of ATP in cells occurs primarily in the _________

57. ___________are the organelles in plant cells that store chlorophyll and perform photosynthetic reactions.

Answer ONLY 8 of the 12 essay questions.

Each question is worth 5 points. The full number of points will be awarded for accurate, correct, full, complete, and thorough answers. Partial credit will be awarded for less than accurate, correct, full, complete, and thorough answers so it is to your advantage to attempt an answer.

1. A population of grasshoppers in the Kansas prairie has two color phenotypes, green and brown. Typically, the prairie receives adequate water to maintain healthy, green grass. Assume a bird that eats grasshoppers moves into the prairie. How will this affect natural selection of the grasshoppers? How might this change in a drought year?

2. You are a writer for “Consumer Reports” magazine and you are asked to design an experiment to evaluate the effectiveness of three brands of whitening strips for teeth. Describe how you would do this using the Scientific Method. Include all of the steps, controls and variables.

3. Viruses are not considered to be living organisms. Name 4 characteristics you could identify to distinguish living organisms from viruses.

4. Explain the process of cell division in animals. Include a description of inter phase, mitosis and cytokinesis.

5. Suppose someone presented data from their research that showed the DNA of a newly discovered species was composed of: 30% adenine, 30% guanine, 20% thymine, 20% cytosine. Based on what you know about DNA structure, explain why these data do not make sense.

6. What are the differences between a covalent bond and an ionic bond?

7. Water is crucial for life as we know it. One of the most important characteristics of water is its ability to act as a solvent. Explain why water is such a good solvent for polar and charged molecules.

8. Suppose you are taking a cruise from California to Hawaii. About halfway there, the ship begins to sink. You are able to board a lifeboat, but now you are floating in the ocean waiting to be rescued. After several days, you are so thirsty that you bend over the side of the boat and drink lots of salty seawater. Explain what you think will happen to your body within a few hours of drinking the ocean water, and explain biological basis for your reaction.

9. What is DNA fingerprinting and explain how this could be used in court or on a TV show such as CSI?

10. DNA and RNA are similar yet distinct components of the cell. Describe three differences between RNA and DNA with respect to their chemical composition and structure. Provide a detailed description of each characteristic you chose in your response.

11. Why would you quickly die if not for the action of enzymes in your cells?

12. List the four “large molecules of life.” Identify their composition and structure, and describe one function they perform in the cell.

1.

What does ΔG of a metabolic reaction measure?

the net change in free energy during a reaction

the amount of heat energy gained or lost in a reaction

the amount of matter transferred in a reaction

the change in activation energy required in a reaction due to enzyme activity

the activation energy of a reaction

2.

Which of the following does a catalyst change during a chemical reaction?

the free energy of the products

heat

entropy

activation energy

the free energy of the reactants

3.

ATP is not the only molecule that can drive reactions. When ATP is depleted during exercise, muscle cells use phosphocreatine to drive the regeneration of ATP.

Consider the following half reactions:

1. ATP + H2O → ADP + Pi

ΔG = –7.3 kcal/mol

2. Phosphocreatine + H2O → creatine + Pi

ΔG = –10.3 kcal/mol

From these two reactions, calculate the Gibbs free energy of the following coupled reaction, catalyzed by creatine kinase:

Phosphocreatine + ADP → ATP + creatine

ΔG = ?

Which is the correct net Gibbs free energy of the reaction?

ΔG = –3 kcal/mol

ΔG = –17.6 kcal/mol

ΔG = 0 kcal/mol

ΔG = +3 kcal/mol

ΔG = +17.6 kcal/mol

4.

Which source of energy does active transport use?

the regeneration of ATP bound to an active transport pump

the hydrolysis of ATP bound to an active transport pump

the hydrolysis of GTP bound to the active transport pump

the transport of ATP bound to an active transport pump

the transport of GTP bound to an active transport pump

5.

Which is an anabolic process?

protein synthesis

glycolysis

ATP hydrolysis

protein degradation

active transport

6.

The sodium-potassium pump is an active transport pump that uses energy to pump potassium into cells and sodium out of cells. Why is ATP energy required?

to change the shape of the ions

to transfer glucose in the same direction as Na+ ions

to pump the Na+ and K+ ions along their diffusion gradient

to pump the Na+ and K+ ions against their diffusion gradient

for the membrane to change shape

7.

Which definition best describes a cell’s metabolism?

the chemical reactions that break down glucose for energy

the use of ATP as an energy carrier

the energy level that must be overcome for a chemical reaction to move forward

the burning of fat molecules for energy

the sum of all the chemical reactions occurring in an organism

8.

Which reaction can provide the energy needed to run an endergonic reaction?

protein synthesis

photosynthesis

ATP hydrolysis

enzyme catalysis

All answers are correct.

9.

Which process(es) can directly amplify signals in a transduction pathway?

activating adenylyl cyclase

activating kinases

activating phosphatases

activating phospholipase C

All answers are correct.

10.

What happens when protein kinase A (PKA) phosphorylates phosphorylase kinase in the epinephrine signal transduction pathway?

Phosphorylase kinase becomes deactivated, and glucose production is suppressed.

Phosphorylase kinase becomes activated, and glucose production is suppressed.

Phosphorylase kinase becomes deactivated, and glucose production is enhanced.

Phosphorylase kinase becomes activated, and glucose production is enhanced.

None of the answers are correct.

11.

Which is a catabolic process?

glycolysis

ATP synthesis

ion transport

photosynthesis

translation of mRNA into protein

12.

Which reaction does a kinase catalyze in a signal transduction pathway?

binding of a signal molecule to a receptor

production of cAMP

phosphorylation of a TARGET  protein

All answers are correct.

None of the answers are correct

*I need about 4~5 pages draft paper by anytime before Oct 25th 9:00AM*
HISTORY OF INDUSTRIAL DESIGN
History of Art & Design Fall semester, 2016
HD361/1, 2 credits
Final Paper Deadlines
Week 10 (Oct. 25): Draft papers due
Week 14 (Nov. 22): Final papers due
Interrogate an Object
The final paper for this course will require each student to research and write a history of a
designed object. You may choose to expand on your typology from the museum project in
written format or you can propose another object of interest from design history. Using concepts
from our readings, discussion, lectures, and beyond, investigate that object within its broader
social and cultural context.
Use both primary and secondary sources to research the ways in which your subject matter was
affected by the culture from which it came. Ask yourself the following questions to help situate
your subject historically:
Understand the Object.
Collect images of your object.
Describe the basics of this object.
1. What is it?
2. What is it called?
3. When was it made?
4. Where is or was the object available?
Describe what it looks like. (Formal Analysis)
5. What are the parts?
6. How are the parts composed (consider line, shape, form, balance, emphasis/focus,
movement, pattern, repetition, unity)?
7. What materials are used?
8. What colors are used?
9. What textures are used?
Describe what this object does. (Functional Analysis)
10. What does it do?
11. How does it work?
12. Does it also have a social function?
13. Does it have a patent?
14. Is it used conspicuously or privately?
Describe the user.
15. Who is the user?
16. What is specific about the user (consider geography, social class, income, gender, ability,
age, etc.)?
17. Are there unintended or other users?
Describe the designer.
18. Who designed this object?
19. Is there a team of designers?
20. Where was it designed?
21. Is the designer also the producer?
Describe production.
22. Who produced it?
23. Where was it produced?
24. What methods were used to produce this object?
25. Who paid to make it (company, manufacturer, commissioner, client, patron)?
26. Were there pieces or parts from other places?
27. Were there any constraints on its production (legal, political)?
Understand the Context and History of the Object
Collect images of alternative objects.
Describe the alternatives and what came before and after:
28. How are the objects the same (cost, availability, materials, manufacturing/production)?
29. How are the objects different (cost, availability, materials, manufacturing/production)?
30. Who would use the alternative (consider genders, geographies, abilities, age)?
31. Do the two objects appeal to the same taste?
32. When were the alternatives made?
33. How has the object changed over time?
34. How has the use of the object changed over time?
35. How has the user of the object changed over time?
36. Where have these objects been used over time?
37. How did technology or new materials change this object?
38. Did changing social structures affect the use of this object?
39. Did changing social structures affect the perception of this object?
40. Did legal requirements or trade agreements change these objects over time?
Summary
Use images and text to write 3,000 words (approximately 8 pages). Keep track of all of your
sources to compile a bibliography. Use in-text citations wherever appropriate.
Draft and final papers are due in class (hard copy) and by email ***
9:30am (on Oct. 25 for drafts, on Nov. 22 for finals). No late papers will be accepted.
Final Paper Guidelines
Length: 3,000 words (approx. 8 pages) plus SEVERAL IMAGES.
Format: Papers are to be typed, double-spaced, using a readable font and 1-inch margins.
Writing Matters: DO proofread and edit these before handing in.
Bibliography: Be consistent. The following format is fine:
Lambert, Tiffany. “How to Write a Draft Paper.” In LMS Resources for HID 361, pp. 35–
40. Brooklyn: Pratt Institute Publishing.
Sources: Cite web-based resources; provide urls and say me when they were accessed. Use a
minimum of 8–10 books or academic journal articles.
You are expected to quote directly from your sources, or to paraphrase material rather than
making direct quotes. Paraphrasing is when you use the ideas or research of someone other
than yourself. For example, if you rely upon some of the information in the required readings,
and you employ those ideas in your essay, you are expected to cite the source even if you are
not making a direct quotation. In general, it is preferable to paraphrase, using too many quotes
as “fillers” in a paper can lead to a lower grade. When citing sources, please use the following
formats (from the Chicago Manual of Style). If using a different format, please be consistent.
You must use formal citations (footnotes or endnotes) in your paper. Please refer to the Writing
and Citing Resources tab on the Campus Guide for more details. Students must keep a copy of
their papers.
** Late papers will not be accepted.** A research paper is designed to unite your ideas with
extensive research. It should be carefully planned, well-organized, and well-written.

Hello – would you be able to help me with the essay below? You can pick one of the three questions to answer. Unit 2 – BAM421 – OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT Please answer one the below question in the format listed below. 1. Identify the four costs of quality. Which one is hardest to evaluate? Explain. 2. Identify five examples of technology’s impact on services. Specifically, identify one that has led to labor cost reductions. 3. What kinds of location decisions are appropriate for use of crossover analysis? Explain how crossover analysis (break-even analysis) can assist an operations manager in choosing among alternative sites in making a location decision. 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages. Begin each writing assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by the actual question itself (in bold type). Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e., an introduction, middle paragraphs and conclusion). Responses must be typed double-spaced, using a standard font (i.e. Times New Roman) and 12 point type size. Please cite all sources used and no plagiarism, this professor is a tough one.