Name: Economics for Managers Date: 1. Comparative advantage explains how two nations can benefit from trade. True False Explain your answer 2. Externalities are created when parties not involved in an economic transaction are affected by it. True False Explain your answer 3. Opportunity cost is the value of the next best alternative to a given choice. True False Explain your answer 4. It is impossible for both nations to gain when trading with one other. True False Explain your answer 5. In economics the true cost of making a choice is the value of what must be given up. True False Explain your answer 6. Some college students think that because a college degree greatly increases their earning potential there is no opportunity cost of attending college. How would an economist look at the matter? a. There is no opportunity cost, assuming that future earnings actually increase as expected. b. The opportunity cost is much less than it would appear, assuming that earnings increase. c. Opportunity cost is a meaningless concept in this situation. d. The college students are completely correct in all respects. e. There is still an opportunity cost, even if it is justified by higher future earnings. 7. The term opportunity cost refers to the a. value of what is gained when a choice is made. b. difference between the value of what is gained and the value of what is forgone when a choice is made. c. value of what is forgone when a choice is made. d. direct costs involved in making a choice. 8. If an airline company has several empty seats on a flight and the full price of an air ticket is $500 and the marginal cost per passenger is $100, then it will be profitable for the airline to a. charge a stand-by passenger no less than the full fare of $500. b. charge a stand-by passenger less than $100. c. charge a stand-by passenger more than $500. d. charge a stand-by passenger more than $100. e. fill the seats at the last minute for any price. 9. Inputs, or factors of production, include a. labor. b. machinery. c. natural resources. d. all of the above. 10. A recession can best be defined as a period of time in which a. total output of the economy falls. b. total output of the economy rises very slowly. c. total unemployment falls. d. total international trade fails to rise. e. Both a and c 11. An industry can be defined as a. the group of all firms that sell a product. b. any company that produces and sells something. c. the set of buyers of a particular good or service. d. the top companies that sell something. 12. The production possibilities frontier has a tendency to bow outward from the origin. True False 13. The central question in economics is how to a. make the best use of scarce resources. b. use government planning agencies. c. induce people to want less. d. increase human knowledge. 14. One popular definition of economics is the study of a. how scarcity increases opportunities to meet ends. b. how markets overcome scarcity. c. one goal and three tasks. d. how to use limited means to meet unlimited wants. e. wants versus needs. 15. An optimal decision is one that chooses a. the most desirable alternative among the possibilities permitted by the resources available. b. the lowest cost method of meeting goals, without regard to quality or any other feature. c. among various possible goals and offends no one, so that all are equally happy. d. among equally important goals, and thereby avoids the “indispensable necessity” syndrome. e. among possible goals in such a way that spends as little money as possible. .jpg”> 16. . In Figure 3-2, the production possibilities frontier has a bowed-out shape because of the law of a. decreasing costs. b. increasing costs. c. demand. d. comparative advantage. 17. Adam Smith noted that people are adept at which of the following? a. Confusing themselves if given the chance. b. Proving the truth of “Murphy’s Law.” c. Denying themselves for the sake of others. d. Pursuing their own self-interest. e. All of the above are correct. Figure 5-3 .jpg”> 18. Assume the market consists of three consumers with the demand curves in Figure 5-3. At a price of 1, the total market demand is a. 40. b. 80. c. 140. d. 150. 19. The law of demand states that as the price a. increases, total quantity demanded will increase. b. decreases, total quantity demanded will decrease. c. increases, total quantity demanded will decrease. d. increases, total quantity demanded will stay the same. 20. Which of the following statements is correct? a. The “law” of diminishing marginal utility implies that demand curves slope upward and to the right. b. If the price of a good falls, the utility-maximizing consumer will assure that marginal utility rises. c. If the price of a good falls, the consumer will purchase more of the good in order to maximize total utility. d. MU and demand have different underlying consumer behavior assumptions. 21. If the price of gasoline rises by 20 percent and consumption of gasoline falls 5 percent, a. demand is elastic. b. demand is unit-elastic. c. demand is inelastic. d. elasticity of demand cannot be calculated. .jpg”> 22. In Figure 6-2, the price elasticity of demand (dropping all minus signs) is ____ between P = 4 and P = 6 than between P = 10 and P = 12 because between the lower set of prices the percentage change in price is ____. a. smaller; smaller b. smaller; greater c. greater; smaller d. greater; greater 23. From Figure 6-2, we can infer that demand is ____ between P = 12 and P = 10 and ____ between P = 6 and P = 4. a. elastic; elastic b. elastic; inelastic c. inelastic; elastic d. inelastic; inelastic 24. The price elasticity of a vertical demand curve is always a. infinitely large. b. zero. c. one. d. increasing as price increases. 25. A rightward shift in the demand curve for a product will ordinarily result from a. a decrease in the advertising budget. b. a decrease in the price of a competing product. c. an increase in consumer income. d. an increase in the price of a complementary good. 26. The following table contains information regarding price and output for a firm. For each point except the first, calculate the elasticity between it and the point above. Price Quantity Elasticity $7 10 _____ 6 20 _____ 5 30 _____ 4 40 _____ 3 50 _____ 2 60 _____ 1 70 _____ Price Quantity Elasticity $7 10 (None) 6 20 4.33 5 30 2.2 4 40 1.286 3 50 .7778 2 60 .4545 1 70 .231 27. A macroeconomist would concentrate on which of the following issues? a. the price of pizzas b. the profits of the IBM Corporation c. the unemployment rate in Germany d. the market for hot dogs 28. The clearest sign of economic growth is a(n) a. increase in nominal GDP. b. increase in real GDP. c. decrease in nominal GDP. d. increase in nominal GDP. 29. Describe some of the steps used to combat inflation. What are their side-effects? 30. Which of the following is a characteristic of a perfectly competitive market? a. a few large firms b. firms producing specialized products in order to attract consumers c. each individual firm having some control over the market price d. a large number of small firms 31. At a perfectly competitive firm’s short-run equilibrium level of output, a. P = MR = MC. b. P = MR, but MR does not equal MC. c. P = MC, but MR does not equal MC. d. MR = MC and P < MR. 32. Of the following industries, which are perfectly competitive? Of those which are not, why do they not fit the model? a. local banking b. gasoline stations c. college-level educational institutions d. local radio and television e. local farmers’ market 32. All of the following are possible characteristics of oligopoly except a. free entry into the industry. b. significant economies of scale. c. interdependence among sellers. d. homogeneous product. 33. A cartel is a. a group of oligopolists who try to behave like a single monopolist and split the benefits among themselves. b. a government-approved organization for the exchange of technical information among firms. c. a form of competition among oligopolists. d. a regulated industry that is officially permitted to set the price of its product above long-run average total cost. 34. The theory of the kinked demand curve is used to explain a. bizarre corporate behavior. b. sales maximization. c. the maximun criterion. d. sticky prices in oligopolies. 35. Other things held constant, when the general price level changes: Select one: a. we shift the aggregate demand curve to the left. b. we shift the aggregate demand curve to the left. c. we shift the aggregate supply curve to the right. d. we shift the aggregate demand curve to the right. e. we move along the aggregate demand curve. 36. The official unemployment rate is: Select one: a. the number of unemployed people divided by the number of employed people. b. the number of unemployed people divided by the total size of the population. c. the number of unemployed people divided by the size of the non-institutionalized population, age 16 or older. d. the number of unemployed people divided by the size of the non-institutionalized population. e. the number of unemployed people divided by the size of the labor force. 37. Which of the following is true of Antitrust policy? Select one: a. Antitrust policy prohibits agreements that allow free trade. b. Antitrust policy restricts abusive behavior by a firm dominating a market. c. Antitrust policy allows anti-competitive practices. d. Antitrust policy encourages establishment of monopoly firms. e. Antitrust policy creates trade barriers like tariffs and quota. 38.Other things equal, a country’s long-run aggregate supply will shift to the left when _____. Select one: a. the productivity of labor rises b. the quantity of natural resources rises c. the mortality rate rises d. the amount of investment rises e. the aggregate expenditure on education rises 39. Which of the following is true of marginal revenue? Select one: a. Marginal revenue is the slope of the total cost curve when profit is maximized. b. Marginal revenue equals total revenue divided by quantity. c. Marginal revenue equals the change in total revenue divided by the change in the quantity. d. Marginal revenue is the slope of the supply curve of a firm. e. Marginal revenue equals the income earned by selling the stocks on the margin. 40. What is Gross Domestic Product? What is included in this statistic? What is excluded? Give two examples of goods or services that are included in GDP and two examples of goods or services that are excluded.
Day: April 27, 2018
Attention deficit disorder (ADD) is a syndrome in which a person has difficulty focusing sustained attention on a task for a significant amount of time. In some cases this is accompanied by hyperactivity as well. It is currently being diagnosed at an all-time high. Between 1989 and 1996, youth visits for ADD increased 90%, from 1.9% of total physician visits to 3.6%.
Now, a psychiatrist named Dr. Edward Hallowell is making a new distinction. He has described a similar set of characteristics in a large number of patients that he terms Attention Deficit Trait (ADT). It looks a lot like ADD in its day-to-day manifestation, but unlike ADD, ADT symptoms lessen when the sufferer goes on vacation or into a decreased sensory input setting for an extended time period (on the order of days or weeks). In such a long-term placid situation, the ADD sufferer’s problems continue unabated.
Imagine that you have the general set of symptoms described above. But which of the two syndromes are causing your symptoms: the disorder (ADD) or the trait (ADT)? Approach your problem using scientific methodology—developing a question, a hypothesis, an experiment, and a control for the experiment.
The initial question and the experiment that will be performed on you are provided. Your job is to state the hypothesis and to design the most important and most basic control for this experiment.
Your Question: What’s my problem? Is it ADD or ADT?
1. Your Hypothesis: State your hypothesis based directly on the above question.
Your Experiment: Keeping your same diet, sleep habits, and basic activity level, you will be sent on a two-week vacation to the Bahama Islands. You will be given only a beach to walk on and your favorite friend to talk to, following which you will be asked to read and memorize 10 sequential definitions from a standard dictionary in 30 minutes.
2. Your Control for this Experiment: You get a numerical result for the number of definitions you memorized. What does that number mean? Nothing—unless you have a control for your experiment. What is the most obvious control for this experiment?
Major Hint: The study guide for Quiz 1 indicates where this topic is covered in your text. The two figures in that section give you valuable examples. Remember, the initial question and experiment are provided here. Be careful to provide what the assignment is asking for.
Your assignment:
1) Write out a testable hypothesis in a brief sentence. Derive it from the question asked above. (Be certain that the experiment addresses it!)
2) In a second sentence, describe a basic, critical control situation (additional experiment?) that will give validity to the experiment described above.
Number your sentences with “1” and “2” and do not use paragraph form. The sentences must not be submitted as an attached document, but entered into the text box provided.
This is my second Order here , I have been constantly struggling to get past a “B” grade and i sorely require to get an “A” on this essay to have a chance to get an Overall A. 1000 Word Essay . I have attached all the Reading Materials Including a detailed info on what is required on the essay . There is an ACSM file that i renamed as a .pdf file to upload here, you need to open it through Adobe Reader ( Protected format , i would need to keep renewing it , purchasing VIP support so i can keep that possible ) Its the Course Book , you would be required to have a look at a single Chapter from it ( info on the Coursework document ). The essay also needs outside the course reading work , not solely from the Book chapter and Reading materials i attach . Hope am not making too many “detailed” requests. Will purchase a VIP support , in order to make sure the writer gets an access to the Course Book (ill have to keep renewing it and maybe send a file )
Imagine you have inherited a restaurant. The restaurant has been out of operation for a bit so this is a blank slate for you to start a new career as a restaurateur and to open a new restaurant. Imagine that you own a upscale restaurant. Write a six to eight (6) page paper in which you: Create a statement describing the value your restaurant will bring your upscale clientele. Determine the pricing strategy that will benefit your restaurant the most. Explain why you chose this strategy. Choose a value communication strategy that you will use to attract potential customers and keep customers coming back. You are contemplating adding a daily special that is unique from the regular menu. Decide and then justify your answer to whether it makes more sense to go upscale and offer a higher priced item than is on your current menu, the same price that aligns to the other menu items, or a lower- priced item compared to your current menu.
I have project (Comprehensive Literature Review project) � final report + Reflection
The topic is Research – Information Literacy research of Annmaree Lloyd
Annmaree Lloyd: has profile in google which https://anniemlloyd.com/
The important points:
1- I have done the project brief (Plan) you have to have a look on this to do the report. �find the (project brief (plan) + feedback from supervisor) �attached.
2- I have done the annotated bibliography + search strategy �please find (annotated bibliography + Feedback)� attached. Please see the feedback from supervisor and work on it.
3- I want you to write final report + Reflection maximum 10000 words by following the structure (requirements) �find the (structure + criteria) file attached.
Note: you have to follow the brief any change is unacceptable. Please follow the brief.
The words limited is 10000 words or less NO MORE
4- No plagiarism.
5- APA Style.
6- I have collected the articles (Lloyd�s publications) �find it in Drobox.https://www.dropbox.com/sh/gy6940e69v8m8wy/AABuloBCzn3FNmLs3cCbgzXPa?dl=0
Note: if you need to use other articles by Lloyd that I did not download, you can use.
Note: I do not have time please work on all feedback and requairments .
Please do your best. And work in follow same structure and feedback that you have done with Bruce�s report.
Note: Do not forget to use other authors in the field of IL (not Lloyd).
CHAPTER: METHODOLOGY
Research Strategy
This study will adopt an exploratory research design where secondary data analysis will be used to understand phenomenon. Secondary data indicates the multiple dimensions based on the realities of different authors. According to Edirisingha (2012), the ontological and epistemological idea behind it is interpretivism. There are different realities presented are socially constructed; thereby, this research forms a basis for future objectively constructed realities through actual primary research.
Data Collection
This type of study relies on results, reports, working and conference papers, and that have already been presented. This secondary analysis is aimed at establishing hypotheses that can be used by future researchers who wish to engage in primary research future. The secondary analysis is easy to conduct because it is cheap and less time consuming.
Sampling Strategy
Since this is there is limited empirical information on this topic, this secondary analysis will utilize secondary data from previous literature to determine the factors that have been proposed result in an aged workforce in small businesses. In addition, this analysis will help to determine the impact this ageing workforce has on the small business: positivity or negatively. Review was based on reports and articles on ageing and small business specifically in the UK. Only articles written in English were included.
Data Analysis
The findings in this review represent the raw data. Since the evidence to be included is Based on the search results and nature of evidence, data analysis will be based on extracting the study, population, and results, which will be in tabular form.
A systematic review was used to determine the impact of ageing on small businesses in the UK. This kind of study is more ideal because it allows the application of evidence-based research in to the real world of business. This kind of study targets both quantitative and qualitative type of data. The use of systematic reviews allocation of individuals into groups based on the researcher�s purpose, in this case, the age factor. Being a systematic review, various databases were used, including Wiley Online, CIPD website, JSTOR, Springer, Project Muse, ProQuest Archive, Academic Search Complete and others based on relevance of the research study. The search terms used were developed in reference to the topic of the study. These terms included �age�, �ageing�, �old/older generation�, �business performance�, �effect/impact�, �small businesses UK� and the articles were selected after a thorough review of the abstract. In the event an abstract was missing, the full text was used for determining inclusion or exclusion of the article. Articles included in the study had to meet the inclusion/exclusion criteria. The selection process was made by the review team, which included two reviewers and their discrepancies were resolved by including a third reviewer.
The inclusion/exclusion criteria entailed the selection of studies that solely adapted experimental kind of studies but randomization was not crucial. Studies examining the effect of age on small businesses (located in the UK) were of interest. The problem of study is old age; thus, the study compares the baby boomers from the age of 55 in accordance with Dhanjal and Schirle (2014) with the younger population less than 55 years in the workplace. Also, individuals included in the study had to have at least three years, but no more than four years, of experience working in a small business. Internships and attachments counted for the years of experience. Older people are presumed to have numerous chronic ailments according to the Institute of Medicine (2008); hence, articles reporting on medical costs as a variable were excluded from the review. Also, the individuals had not have received a performance appraisal prior to the study to ensure that the baseline performance assessment was the first and improvement strategies done during appraisal processes were not underway in either one of the participants.
Apart from the inclusion and exclusion criteria stated above, all studies were included regardless of the language used in reporting. Keeping note of all the essential elements of the studies to be included in this review, the review of empirical evidence older than ten years was disregarded. Therefore, the studies were limited to the years between 2007 and 2016. The study collected both quantitative and qualitative data. The review was conducted for a time period of three months. During this time, the searching, inclusion and exclusion of research studies, and went on. Data was extracted from the selected articles and spreadsheet was used to present the results. Publications from the selected studies were appraised and if found worthy of inclusion, was reviewed. Search results were checked based on relevance and duplication. Hence, similar publications of a study were linked to avoid duplication (Committee on Standards for Systematic Reviews of Comparative Effectiveness Research & Institute of Medicine, 2011).
Studies that met the inclusion/exclusion criteria were retrieved for further appraisal. Validity of the review was assured by determining the quality of the studies reviewed, and studies with a low score were excluded from this review. The quality of the studies included in this review was determined by a scoring system developed by the review team. The quality assessment tool used in this review was adapted from the AMSTAR tool (Smith 2011, Devane 2011, Begley 2011, and Clarke, 2011).
Upon obtaining the original results, a thorough examination of the inclusion criteria and quality of the studies led to a small number of studies that were used for the final review. The effects of age were noted down using M/s Excel and a second review was done to ensure that no one effect had been omitted. In addition, this reporting template was used to note down the sample size of each study, the effect sizes of the result, and robustness of the methods used in each study. Themes were noted for qualitative studies, and this information formed basis for the narrative.
Variation in the studies� methodology made it impossible to combine the results. Heterogeneity prevailed in reference to the age of the participants in the different studies and the variables of interest. Therefore, the results of each study were discussed separately. A narrative approach sufficed as the mode through which the authors summarized the findings.
Ethical Approval
This research is entirely based on secondary research analysis. The ethical clearance process with the Anglia Ruskin University re secondary data approval.
This research also has approval from the Anglia Ruskin University and gives rise to no ethical issues.
This was the method chapter that I got it from you guys back in August and my tutor has gone through it and gave me following comments …please go through it and please modify it accordingly…It seems there are few things missing on it.
Unfortunately at the moment it is reading like a findings chapter ie what you have done and not why and what you intend to do.
The chapter is the defence of a research design which provides clarity from research methods theory for what you intend – has to be written in the future tense and provide a structure of what you will do.
There are also no discussion of the constraints.
You may want to use some of this for your findings you need to translate it to your plans for what you will do
Coping with Project Risk on Technology Implementation & Transformation Projects within a Large Organization – The Case for Superior Risk Management Discipline In September 2010, CHEMICS Insurance advised its staff that their all their offices would receive an overhaul of systems and processes. This was a technology overhaul program at its core. Yet there was an opportunity to streamline the business process to enable straight-through-processing and improve support levels. The new procedures and tools will promise to solve a variety of issues with have plagued the organization. The new tools would be simpler to use to conduct business, easier to train, and easier to support for the IT department. The project was scoped and estimated to be impacting 20,000 employees in the US division before it was deployed to the company’s international offices. Code named “The CHEMICS Method”, the project had a life time budget of $50M from start to completion and it was estimated that the program would take 3 full years to complete. The senior executive group envisioned some of the clear benefits of the project before signing off on the expenditure. A senior project management team was assembled comprising of internal CHEMICS resources and external consultants. The project would impact nearly every facet of the organizations, including HR, Pre-sales, and External Sales, Marketing, Customer Service, Claims, IT, Billing and other Back office. Every business process would be changed and streamlined as part of the project. Sophisticated, role-based workflow systems would be deployed to enter, collect, collate, and analyze business data. Real-time client information would be available and seamlessly integrated throughout the different departments. The promise was to reduce business costs and streamline the company’s operations which had not been done in any holistic manner for the past 150 years of the company’s existence. The project was kicked off in January of 2011 with each stakeholder signing off prior to launch. The company was committed and a risk management plan was put together along with other project planning deliverables including a program plan, process documentation, project information portals, and a document management system to help manage the project and the related documentation that was being developed. One year later, senior management started to sense that adequate progress was not being made. Project management reports were being circulated and all indicators were seemingly positive. However, material progress had not been made given the following observations by senior management: · There were no new systems components being built and tested · Process documents were produced but not signed off by the concerned stakeholders of impacted departments · Low staff confidence levels were observed regarding The CHEMICS Method project given conversations being had “around the water cooler”. · $10M dollars of the program budget were being spent · Many issues and risks were being reported by various departments, yet not acknowledged · by the project management related deliverables · Significant process and technology rework was being performed without material · finalization · One third of the entire project timeline had already been expended to date. · Three consulting vendors were changed by the program management team over the course of the one year. · Without hesitation, senior management concluded that the program was in serious trouble. Without question, a course-correction was required. Questions Senior management has chosen to hire you as an expert project management consulted, not otherwise connected with the program thus far, to conduct an assessment. 1. How would you set about conducting such a review? 2. How would you structure your report, i.e. on what basis? 3. Clearly, your report concludes that there is a risk management issue for this program. How would you recommend addressing this issue? What could a comprehensive risk management plan look like and how would you include it in the overall program plan going forward? Specific issues you have been asked to include: 4. Would the assignment of a CHEMICS project manager have made a difference? 5. If so, in what way, and what specific skills would that manager have required? 6. What are the lessons learned?
Liberty University BIOL101 Individual Assignment 1 complete solutions correct answers key
Many of you have spent hours thinking about why human beings exist. Most of you are very satisfied with the biblical answers to that question. However, entertain this question for a few moments: Why do all the life forms other than man exist? Why are they all here?
Evaluate and analyze the arguments in the presentation “Biblical Basis of Life’s Significance,” found in the Reading & Study folder of Module/Week 1. Construct a single sentence of 40 words or less. Include within it 4 carefully crafted and concise phrases that argue that life forms other than man are significant—they were worth creating. Start your sentence with the words:
“Life forms are significant because…”
Then add the 4 phrases, separating each with a comma. Order your phrases such that the most significant comes first and the least significant comes last.
Your assignment:
- Write out your masterful sentence.
- The sentence must be submitted through the appropriate assignment link and must not be submitted as an attached document, but entered into the text box provided.
Question
1 of 20
Which of the following is a colonial form of green algae?
Giardia
Thiobacillus
Volvox
Paramecium
Question
2 of 20
Land was first colonized about ______ years ago.
100 million
500 million
570 million
1.7 billion
Question
3 of 20
In angiosperms, the male gametophyte develops within ______.
male cones
mycelia
filaments
anthers
Question
4 of 20
Under what abiotic conditions can monomers spontaneously form polymers?
When water evaporates from a hot surface
When ribozymes are present to catalyze the reaction
With the addition of water
By biogenesis
Question
5 of 20
Gametophytes reproduce ______.
by fission
by producing sperm and eggs
by alternation of generations
by budding
Question
6 of 20
Under ideal conditions, prokaryotes are capable of reproducing at a(n) ______ rate.
hypergeometric
exponential
infinite
arithmetic
Question
7 of 20
A pollen grain is a ______.
female gametophyte
sporophyte
type of seed
male gametophyte
Question
8 of 20
Where and when does fertilization occur in the mushroom life cycle?
Underground, as a mycelium begins to spread.
On the surface of the ground, when a spore germinates.
In a mushroom, when nuclei of a heterokaryotic cell fuse.
In a mushroom, when sperm and eggs meet.
Question
9 of 20
According to the theory of endosymbiosis, which organelles evolved from small prokaryotes that established residence within other, larger prokaryotes?
Vacuoles and lysosomes
Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic reticulum
Centrioles and ribosomes
Mitochondria and chloroplasts
Question
10 of 20
What global climatic change gave gymnosperms an advantage over ferns?
The climate becoming hotter and wetter
The climate becoming cooler and drier
Increased fluctuations in global climate
The climate becoming cooler and wetter
Question
11 of 20
Which protozoan group consists solely of parasitic forms?
Apicomplexans
Ciliates
Flagellates
Amoebas
Question
12 of 20
An explorer found a plant that had roots, stems, and leaves. It had no flowers but produced seeds. This plant sounds like a(n)
fern.
bryophyte.
angiosperm.
gymnosperm.
Question
13 of 20
Plants first moved onto land at least ______ years ago.
65 million
475 million
1.2 billion
3.5 billion
Question
14 of 20
The prokaryotic group that tends to inhabit extreme environments belongs to the ______.
kingdom Monera
kingdom Protista
domain Archaea
domain Monera
Question
15 of 20
In angiosperms, what structures house female gametophytes?
Ovules
Petals
Stigma
Sepals
Question
16 of 20
Flagellates, amoebas, apicomplexans, and ciliates are all what type of protist?
Slime molds
Protozoans
Diatoms
Dinoflagellates
Question
17 of 20
All prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms that photosynthesize fit into which nutritional category?
Chemoautotrophs
Photoheterotrophs
Photoautotrophs
Chemoheterotrophs
Question
18 of 20
From the point of view of an angiosperm, what is the function of fruit?
It is where the male gametophyte develops.
It provides structural support for the plant.
It is a mechanism for the dispersal of seeds.
It attracts pollinators.
Question
19 of 20
Whose experiments demonstrated that, given the conditions on the primitive Earth, biological monomers could arise spontaneously?
Miller and Urey
Darwin
Watson
Margulis
Question
20 of 20
Like plants, fungi have ______; however, in plants they are composed of ______, whereas in fungi they are composed of ______.
cell walls; cellulose; chitin
cell walls; cellulose; peptidoglycan
cell membranes; phospholipids; peptidoglycan
cell membranes; cellulose; phospholipids
What name is given to the food-trapping cells of sponges?
Phagocytes
Amoebocytes
Cnidocytes
Choanocytes
2 of 20
All animals
are prokaryotic.
are heterotrophic.
have cell walls made of chitin.
obtain food by absorption.
3 of 20
Features unique to mammals include
the presence of hair.
extended parental care of the young.
being endotherms.
having no egg-laying members.
4 of 20
Which of the following levels of structure encompasses all the others?
Tissue
Cell
Organ
Organism
5 of 20
Which of the following animals does not have a body cavity?
Ant
Mouse
Flatworm
Clam
6 of 20
Sharks are a type of
Tunicate.
Cartilaginous fish.
Bony fish.
Lungfish.
7 of 20
The water vascular system of a sea star functions in
movement of the tube feet.
circulation of nutrients around the body.
pumping water for swimming movements.
buoyancy
8 of 20
Neurons are specialized cells characteristic of
muscle tissue.
connective tissue.
epithelial tissue.
nervous tissue.
9 of 20
A(n) ______ is an example of an invertebrate chordate.
snake
echinoderm
lancelet
fish
10 of 20
Animals probably evolved from protists. How do animals differ from these protist ancestors?
Animals are eukaryotic.
Animals have more specialized cells.
Animals are heterotrophic.
Animals are able to reproduce.
11 of 20
Homeostasis is
the exchange of materials with the surrounding environment.
the idea that all vertebrates are built in a similar way.
the correlation of structure and function.
maintaining a relatively constant internal environment.
12 of 20
Unique features of vertebrates include the presence of a(n)
skull and backbone
notochord
endoskeleton
pharyngeal slit
13 of 20
A marine biologist dredged up a small animal from the ocean floor. It was uniformly segmented, with short, stiff appendages and soft, flexible skin. It had a complete digestive system and a closed circulatory system but no skeleton. Based on the description, this animal sounds most like a(n)
lancelet.
crustacean.
annelid.
mollusk.
14 of 20
The feature present in reptiles and absent in amphibians that freed reptiles from the dependence on
water for reproduction is
parental care of eggs.
metamorphosis.
the lateral line system.
the amniotic egg.
15 of 20
A change in the body often triggers a response that counteracts the change. This kind of response is known as
negative feedback.
empowerment.
cause and effect.
positive feedback.
16 of 20
A _____ is a chordate, but not a vertebrate.
squid
tunicate
shark
frog
17 of 20
Pill bugs” or “sow bugs”, often found under rocks and logs in moist places, have the ability to roll up into a ball when disturbed. Sow bugs are really crustaceans, not insects. Therefore, sow bugs do not have
an exoskeleton.
gills.
three pairs of legs.
antennae.
18 of 20
Which of the following tissues produces voluntary body movements?
Smooth muscle
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Cardiac muscle
Skeletal muscle
19 of 20
Which of the following are listed in the correct hierarchal order?
System-tissue-organ
Cell-tissue-organ
Organ-tissue-system
Tissue-cell-organ
20 of 20
Which of the following animals displays radial symmetry?
A worm
A sea anemone
A fish
A lobster
