Day: April 27, 2018

Attention deficit disorder (ADD) is a syndrome in which a person has difficulty focusing sustained attention on a task for a significant amount of time. In some cases this is accompanied by hyperactivity as well. It is currently being diagnosed at an all-time high. Between 1989 and 1996, youth visits for ADD increased 90%, from 1.9% of total physician visits to 3.6%.

 

Now, a psychiatrist named Dr. Edward Hallowell is making a new distinction. He has described a similar set of characteristics in a large number of patients that he terms Attention Deficit Trait (ADT). It looks a lot like ADD in its day-to-day manifestation, but unlike ADD, ADT symptoms lessen when the sufferer goes on vacation or into a decreased sensory input setting for an extended time period (on the order of days or weeks). In such a long-term placid situation, the ADD sufferer’s problems continue unabated.

 

Imagine that you have the general set of symptoms described above. But which of the two syndromes are causing your symptoms: the disorder (ADD) or the trait (ADT)? Approach your problem using scientific methodology—developing a question, a hypothesis, an experiment, and a control for the experiment.

 

The initial question and the experiment that will be performed on you are provided. Your job is to state the hypothesis and to design the most important and most basic control for this experiment.

 

 

Your Question: What’s my problem? Is it ADD or ADT?

 

1.      Your Hypothesis: State your hypothesis based directly on the above question.

 

Your Experiment: Keeping your same diet, sleep habits, and basic activity level, you will be sent on a two-week vacation to the Bahama Islands. You will be given only a beach to walk on and your favorite friend to talk to, following which you will be asked to read and memorize 10 sequential definitions from a standard dictionary in 30 minutes.

 

2.      Your Control for this Experiment: You get a numerical result for the number of definitions you memorized. What does that number mean? Nothing—unless you have a control for your experiment. What is the most obvious control for this experiment?

 

Major Hint: The study guide for Quiz 1 indicates where this topic is covered in your text. The two figures in that section give you valuable examples. Remember, the initial question and experiment are provided here. Be careful to provide what the assignment is asking for.

 

Your assignment:

 

1)      Write out a testable hypothesis in a brief sentence. Derive it from the question asked above. (Be certain that the experiment addresses it!)

2)      In a second sentence, describe a basic, critical control situation (additional experiment?) that will give validity to the experiment described above.

Number your sentences with “1” and “2” and do not use paragraph form. The sentences must not be submitted as an attached document, but entered into the text box provided.

Liberty University BIOL 101 Individual Assignment 3 complete solutions correct answers key

The global community is plagued by increasing incidence of lung cancer, colorectal cancer, breast cancer, pancreatic cancer, prostate cancer, leukemia, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, liver cancer, ovarian cancer, and esophageal cancer. Other types of cancer exist but are less frequent. What is the scientific community doing to attempt to eliminate the most common forms of cancer that are ravaging society?

 

1.      Be certain that you have read your textbook’s chapter on cell division, specifically the last section on how cells become cancerous. This is context for completing this assignment.

 

2.      Watch the presentation (found in the Reading & Study folder of Module/Week 4) entitled “Ways to Fight Cancer.” Notice that the presentation outlines essentially 3 approaches to fighting cancer: a) reduction of cancer risks, b) correction of cancer genes, and c) destruction of cancerous tissue.

 

3.      In the “Individual Assignment 3: 10 Discoveries in the War on Cancer” document is a set of 10 scientists’ discoveries. Scan the discoveries briefly. Then open the assignment submission link in Module/Week 4. In the text box, number from 1 to 10 for the 10 discoveries listed in the document.

 

4.      Reflect carefully on the first discovery (#1). Would this discovery be more useful for (a) reducing cancer risks, (b) correcting/restoring cancer cells to normal, or (c) destroying cancerous tissue? After #1 in your list, place in parentheses the letter representing the approach to fighting cancer that will best be served by this new discovery. (More than one approach may be served, but which is most likely to be helped most significantly?)

 

5.      Repeat this analysis for each of the remaining 9 discoveries. Return to the “Ways to Fight Cancer” presentation as needed for additional perspective. When finished, your entire text box must be simple: a numbered (1–10) list of letters a, b, or c.

 

6.      Seven points are granted for each correct association, up to 8 correct. If you get any 9 correct out of 10, you get a perfect score (60 points) on the assignment.

 

Individual Assignment 3: 10 Discoveries in the War on Cancer

1.      Malignant brain tumors in adults are fast-growing cancers with median survival rates of 15 months, even with aggressive treatment. Researchers have been searching for genetic “signatures” (characteristic groups of cancer-causing genes) that could help in defining the kind of brain tumor the patient has. They hope to be better able to predict the course of the disease and the patient’s response to treatment.

 

2.      Tobacco smoking is the leading cause of preventable deaths worldwide. It is a risk factor for lung cancer and several other types of cancer. Results of analysis of the entire human gene collection (the “genome”) support some previous findings that a region of human chromosome number 15 contains one or more genes that are associated with smoking intensity (the number of cigarettes smoked per day) and the closely related trait of nicotine dependency.

 

3.      Immunologists are investigating ways to destroy lymphocytes (white blood cells of the immune system) that have become cancerous (lymphomas). A current drug, Rituxamab, contains antibodies that bind to the surfaces of these lymphocytes, setting them up for destruction by the cancer patient’s own immune system. They are currently seeking ways to modify the antibody’s structure so that it will attract the cancer patient’s “natural killer” (NK) cells to the lymphocytes. Success of this project will bring a multifaceted immune response against lymphomas and hasten their destruction.

 

4.      Virologists are modifying lentiviruses as vectors for carrying proto-oncogenes into cancer-transformed cells in culture. They are developing this virus for inserting the ras proto-oncogene directly into its correct location in the genome. The correct ras gene will already be linked to human DNA to either side of it and complexed with a recombination enzyme that will insert it into its correct location within the human genome. At the same time, the recombination enzyme will excise the defective oncogenic form of ras. The cells in culture should again come under normal hormonal control and require extra-cellular signals in order to continue dividing.

 

5.      Immunologists are working with a mutation (HER2) that is expressed on the surface of many breast, bladder, pancreatic, and ovarian cancer cells. They have made antibodies against this mutant surface protein. These antibodies have been covalently bonded to a “gene expression vector” that makes cells light up when incubated with luciferin from fireflies. The vector takes the gene for luciferin into the cancer cells. The researchers have shown that their antibody can accurately find and light up cancer cells. Their next step is to bond the antibody to an expression vector that carries the normal HER2 gene into mutant cancer cells.

 

6.      Biochemists have discovered a protein kinase enzyme named BRAF that is an important link in a molecular pathway that causes a cell to divide. Normally BRAF responds to signals coming from outside the cell—signals calling for the cell to divide normally under normal conditions. But there is a mutation in BRAF enzymes that causes it to activate the cell toward division continually. In this way it results in melanomas, thyroid, and ovarian cancers. Biochemists have also found a drug, vemurafenib, that binds selectively to mutant BRAF, totally inactivating it. Cells that have inactivated BRAF undergo apoptosis, a process that leads to cell death.

 

7.      Organic chemists are exploring structural variations of the organic compound avobenzone (1-(4-Methoxyphenyl)-3-(4-tert-butylphenyl) propane-1,3-dione) for inclusion in sunblock products. Avobenzone is known for its ability to absorb a broad spectrum of ultraviolet radiations, including UVB light (known to enhance the frequency of basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas [skin cancers]) and UVA rays (thought to increase the frequency of melanoma cancers). New variations in the structure of avobenzone are hoped to retain the ability to absorb harmful UV radiation while having an increased stability in the presence of that radiation.

 

8.      Molecular biologists have taken nanoparticle-sized spheres and used them to deliver a cell-killing toxin from bee venom to tumors in mice, substantially reducing tumor growth without harming normal body tissues. Nanoparticles are known to concentrate in solid tumors because blood vessels in tumors show “enhanced permeability and retention effect,” or EPR. Hence, substances such as nanoparticles escape more readily from the bloodstream into tumors and the generally poor drainage of lymph from tumors further helps trap the particles in tumor tissue.

 

9.      Biochemists are analyzing the many, many components of red meat (beef, pork) to determine which component, if any, will cause increased colorectal cancer rates in mice when the component is administered orally. Studies have shown that higher colorectal cancer rates in humans are associated with higher consumption rates of red meat.

 

10.  Molecular biologists have developed a new sequence of human genes called an ankyrin insulator sequence. You place a new, corrected, or therapeutic gene within this sequence. Its role is to create an active area on a human chromosome where the new gene can work efficiently no matter what chromosome it lands on.

Liberty University BIOL 101 Individual Assignment 4 complete solutions correct answers key

Ecological Encounters

 

1. Should stewardship principles be taught in the Church?

 

Following a morning church service, you enter the foyer and overhear a discussion that you decide to join.

 

Bert: …so we really, really need to get the message out to the world that we are selfishly ruining our environment. Politically important people are exploiting poor people and the environment itself. This is not what Jesus would do.

 

Herbie: Well, I think Jesus went about teaching the Kingdom of God, not saving the environment. When people are walking down a road that leads to continuous torment and death, how much time should you spend teaching them to repair the road they’re walking on? These issues are distracting.

 

Sally: Well, regardless of which road you’re walking on, you make little choices each day about how you will walk that road.

 

Bert: Good point. Jesus walked that road. He probably had one suit, simple food, a borrowed mattress to sleep on, and no recreational vehicle to drive. So He was making choices that we don’t think about enough.

 

Herbie: (sigh…) To get people to think about those choices, you have to change their hearts first. You must communicate the gospel to people. When they are healed, then the Spirit of Christ will point them to less ecologically extravagant choices.

 

Sally: But Herbie, is that really happening in our churches? Are new converts just naturally choosing more environmentally responsible patterns? Don’t we need to help them with this? Jesus said to make disciples. Doesn’t that mean teaching them on a variety of issues?

 

Bert: If we’re visibly out there being environmentally protective and responsible, people will ask: “Why is your church doing this stuff?” It will just be natural to share our story of conversion to following Christ and caring about the new priorities He builds into our hearts.

 

Herbie: Bert, I don’t think people will ask that question. They will assume we’re selfishly trying to save the turf we live on just like some of them do. It’s like, you’re doing a good thing but there’s nothing particularly spiritual about it. The world wants to save the planet. We want to save people.

 

Sally: Herbie, I think God wants us to do both. So, how do we get the world to see us making good environmental choices while they hear us proclaiming salvation through Christ and new life in Him?

 

 

You decide to chime in, but which response below is yours, a) or b)?

 

a)      We really need to focus on our original mandate from Jesus: preaching the gospel. As people come to faith in Christ, many questions including some regarding environmental issues may arise and we can answer their questions naturally as they come up, one-on-one.

 

b)      We need to “go into the world and make disciples.” As people come to faith in Christ, we must begin to disciple them. They must be taught how their faith in Christ as Redeemer and Creator applies to their use of the environment. This is just part of the whole picture.

 

In Blackboard, open the assignment link. Within the text box, type a “1.” followed by either a) or b) above, depending on which response you agree with. Then, add a single densely-crafted sentence (about 20 words) defending your choice while modifying it slightly if you wish to. Then, keep reading:

 

Herbie has left the discussion a bit frustrated. His wife is anxious to get to the restaurant they have reservations at. Ethel hears people talking and decides to come over and join in.

 

1. How would you teach stewardship principles in the Church?

 

Sally: What if we start a new Sunday morning focus group before church where we could talk about these issues—you know—define them a bit and air them out?

 

Bert: No, no, no, no…The worst offenders will not join that group. We need to get Pastor Bob to do a sermon series on it so that the right people get the message. This has to be a revolution in the church’s consumerist thinking. The point has to be boldly made and made to everybody.

 

Sally: Well, why Pastor Bob? He has to live with us. Why don’t we get in a special speaker like Sleeth or DeWitt and have them do a series of three or four talks on a Sunday evening? We could add food and other enticements to get people out.

 

Ethel: Wait a minute…wait…just a minute! If you’re going to try to get everybody to wear blue jeans and old shirts and live in a tent in February, you’re going to divide this church right down the middle. And I know which side I’ll be on. Why should I stop wearing makeup because some biblical illiterate has just pronounced it wrong!

 

Bert: No, no, no…Ethel, we’re not talking about stepping on people’s biblical freedoms. This can’t be a “style” issue. But there are very basic stewardship principles that have to be taught. It’s the principles that need exposure. God’s Spirit will then lead individual people further into applying those principles.

 

Sally: Bert….that sounds like Herbie. Don’t we need to present at least some specifics?

 

Bert: So you want Amish buggies instead of cars because a horse is more efficient than an engine?

 

Sally: Well…maybe we could start with some easy things everyone could do, like buying less stuff and finding ways to reduce power consumption at home.

 

Ethel: OK…yeah…I could see a bit of that. It would save some money too, probably. George keeps saying we should give more to the missionaries…I get sick of hearing it.

 

Bert: But, Herbie has a point. How can we forcefully get basic stewardship principles out there to the entire congregation without making seekers and new converts think that this is our central focus? There must be a way to do this.

 

Sally: Bert, I was thinking: most of the poorer people in town that we say we want to reach for Christ are probably living more simply than many of us. I think they resent us for our extravagance. Our gospel needs some credibility in this area. I think we look selfish.

 

Ethel: Well…well…maybe you could work the whole environment thing into a focus on helping some Ugandan orphanage or something. George breaks my heart with these orphan stories. We could save money here and donate it there along with the gospel. If it has anything to do with missions, George will drag me to it. Well actually…that’s not fair. I’d be interested in it myself.

 

You (chiming in again with one of the comments below): “I have an idea.”

 

a)      Let’s get together at Herbie’s place and discuss it further. He had some good points and I fear that this new teaching will get us all distracted from a bigger evangelistic goal that we’re really not dealing with very well.

 

b)      I found this Christian website called Woodlakebooks.com. They’ve got good special group studies we could adopt for a “come if you want” 9-week focus group. We could meet just with interested people during a non-worship-service time. We could start our own little stewardship project and get the pastor to update the congregation on what we’re doing.

 

c)      Hey, Parish Publishing in New England makes weekly bulletin inserts that we could use over the long term. Everybody would get them, so we could sort of press the issue on people a bit. We could use them to invite interested people to an ongoing focus group on the subject. A missions project could be an outlet for the money we save.

 

d)     We need to get Pastor Bob excited about this or it will appear divisive. Phil knows him really well. Phil could get him to do some topical sermons on stewardship and how it relates to our message of salvation, maybe in a special Sunday night teaching series.

 

e)      Hey, Phil has graduate degrees from seminary and from Liberty University in environmental management. Maybe Pastor Bob would let Phil do a few successive Sunday morning teaching sessions during the worship hour. We could get the congregation to understand a little of the science behind caring for the earth.

 

f)       We need Pastor Bob and Phil to build a money bridge. They need to use worship service time to get us involved with a third-world evangelism and service project. They could convince people that our own environmental stewardship could help fund it all. Once people see the connection, we can start the stewardship classes to show people how to save money and contribute.

 

In the assignment text box, type a “2.” followed by 1 of the lettered choices above, depending on which response you agree with. Then, add a single densely-crafted sentence (about 20 words) that either

 

·         explains why you have selected this option

or

·         improves on the position you have selected

 

Bert has left the discussion reluctantly. His wife reminded him that the walk home takes 10 minutes and the bean casserole has now started cooking. The kids are hungry. Cal Lorrie, a nutritionist, has been listening to this conversation and decides to join in.

 

1. Does environmental stewardship affect what I eat?

 

Ethel: Gee, maybe those third-world orphans I spoke of are already the environmentally responsible people. I mean, they surely lean less heavily on the environment than we do. Don’t they? Really, I just couldn’t live like that…

 

Cal: One huge area of environmental stewardship involves what you choose to eat. Some third-world tribal groups probably eat mostly what they hunt and kill and do very little with vegetation unless the hunting fails for some reason.

 

Sally: Why would you mention that? Isn’t a vegetarian diet just a choice you make because it may be healthier for you?

 

Ethel: Oh, here we go…celery and water…

 

Cal: It’s more than nutrition. It’s a food web concept. When you get your protein from beef, or worse, from shellfish, you eat higher and higher in the food web. More calories are expended to get protein from shrimp than from beans and rice.

 

Ethel: Oh Cal, protein is protein. Doesn’t it cost the same amount to make the same quantity of protein?

 

Sally: I should have taken that BIOL 101 online course that Liberty University was offering…

 

Cal: The shrimp swims around, actively feeds, escapes predators, and has a high metabolic rate. It uses lots more calories than a bean plant just getting its protein to you.

 

Ethel: (sigh…) You want the church to do beans and rice at the next church dinner? With perhaps a bit of water?

 

Cal: The issue is balance. An uncritical vegetarian will actually be malnourished in certain ways. But most of our church members probably do way too much with meat. You have to give a whole lot of “Corn-Flake-level calories and protein” to a steer to get far less steak protein. So with the steak, you are taking far more from the environment.

 

Sally: My cousin Atkins is on a high-protein diet to try to lose weight. Are you saying that’s misguided?

 

Cal: Oh, he’ll probably lose some weight for biochemical reasons. But ecologically, the high-protein diets are most successful in America because we have the money to spend to eat higher in the food web.

 

Sally: We really need to get this information into the hands of our church people. This would give them two independent reasons to do a more balanced diet.

 

Ethel: Sorry. Talk all you want to. My George will have a good-sized piece of beef every night for dinner. We’re past the hot dog stage of life and he certainly won’t let me switch out beef with veggie burgers!

 

You (make another choice; what would you like to say?): “Hmmm…”

 

a)      Sally, I think Ethel’s right. We really ought to look for less intrusive ways to become ecologically friendly. Pushing on people about their diets is just going to dump a whole lot of unbiblical guilt on people, but they won’t budge. The Bible says we can do either meat or vegetables…

 

b)      I know! There are lots of good recipes/cookbooks out there that are done by people who want to eat lower in the food web. We could wholesale a bunch of them and put them on a stand in the church lobby. That would make a neat statement and income could go toward a third-world help project.

 

c)      Well, Ethel, what about just sharing basic food web concepts that Phil would know about? Then individual members can respond as God leads them to. That might only take 3–4 sessions. We could do it as part of a weekend thing, but have the last session be a review session on Sunday morning so exposure is broad.

 

d)     Ethel, you mentioned church suppers. Let’s have a seminar series on eating carefully within our food web and show people, calorie for calorie, how their restraint would feed orphan children in Uganda. The last seminar would be a church dinner using recipes that are lower on the food web. That way, lots of people could make a choice that keeps little children alive.

 

 

There are differing degrees of dietary stewardship implied in the choices above. In the assignment text box, type a “3.” followed by 1 of the lettered choices above, depending on which response you agree with. Then, add a single densely-crafted sentence (about 20 words) that either

 

·         explains why you have selected this option

or

·         improves on the position you have selected

 

Submit your assignment when finished.

 

Note: Many food consumption variables exist which have not been discussed:

 

a)      If I eat some raw foods, energy isn’t needed to cook them.

 

b)      If I eat at a restaurant, the environment has to support the staff that waits on me, the builders who built the restaurant, the workers who maintain the facility, etc.

 

c)      If I buy locally, less energy is used to get the food to me.

 

d)     If I eat simpler foods, less energy is used to process the foods (corn and chicken vs. “corndogs” manufactured two states away and refrigerated all the way

Liberty University BIOL 101 quiz 3 complete solutions correct answers key

7 different versions

Question 1 Light dependent reactions are carried out both on and in between photosystems. This process is like the last stage of aerobic respiration in that both

Question 2 In the chloroplast, light dependent reactions take place in the __________________ while light independent reactions take place in the __________________.

Question 3 When your car engine burns the octane in gasoline, at least 50% of the energy of the octane

Question 4 The value of the three stages of aerobic respiration is their ability to break down glucose, a single molecule, with the resultant production of about

Question 5 Enzymes are important because they

Question 6 Accessory pigments and chlorophylls work together within the thylakoid membrane in clusters called __________ . They harvest light energy and use it to transfer electrons to _______________.

Question 7 Energy­releasing reactions drive biosynthetic ones forward by contributing to a pool of

Question 8 The energy storage molecule that connects endergonic and exergonic reactions, driving endergonic reactions forward, is

Question 9 ________ and ________ are products of aerobic respiration.

Question 10 The physicist’s definition of energy is _______________ for use in defining energy changes within a living cell.

Question 11 The final stage of aerobic respiration involves

Question 12 The cell’s pumping of substances against diffusion forces that would carry those substances the other way is termed

Question 13 An allosteric enzyme

Question 14 Each wavelength of light has its own

Question 15 The three metabolic pathways that make up aerobic respiration are really all parts of one larger pathway because

Question 16 Which of the following is not a product of the Krebs cycle?

Question 17 Which of the following phrases best describes the role of NADPH in photosynthesis?

Question 18 The process of __________ can be defined as about 30 individual, sequential chemical reactions that form three metabolic pathways: one in the cytoplasm and two within the mitochondrion.

Question 19 Griffith exposed weak living bacteria to just the fluids from dead virulent bacteria. Some of these weak bacteria became virulent and could now kill mice. What control experiment did he do to argue that his weak bacteria changed to virulence in these studies?

Question 20 Glucose + _________ + 36 ADP yields _________ + 6H2O + 36 _________.

Question 21 DNA is stored within the ____________ of a cell in a __________ fiber called chromatin.

Question 22 For most chemical reactions in the non­living world, the energy required to break bonds in the reactant molecules

Question 23 _________ is a reactant in the process of aerobic respiration and _______ is a product of the same process.

Question 24 NADPH is formed when

Question 25 Existing chemical bonds between atoms are broken and new ones are formed between different atoms. This process

 

For most chemical reactions in the non-living world, the energy required to break bonds in the reactant molecules

In biosynthesis of a protein, energy for bonding amino acids together comes from

A producer organism is called a “producer” because it produces

Physicists define energy as

Reactants like hydrogen and oxygen molecules and are converted into a product like water molecules in the course of

Systems that convert energy from one form to another are

In a long metabolic pathway, the multiple changes made to an initial reactant molecule are entirely controlled by

Energy-releasing reactions drive biosynthetic ones forward by contributing to a pool of

If bacteria can get their energy for life from a single kind of chemical reaction, then that reaction

An endergonic reaction always

An allosteric enzyme

A useful way for a cell biologist to define energy is

In nature, as energy freely changes from one form to another

On a cold day, your cells depend on ________ to maintain an operating temperature of 37 degrees Celsius.

Whenever chemical bonds are broken, energy is __________. Whenever chemical bonds form, energy is __________.

Producer organisms convert _______ energy to chemical energy—the energy of C―H and C―O―H bonds.

Three phosphate groups linked to a ribose sugar which, in turn, is linked to a pyrimidine base known as adenine: this phrase describes the structure of

An excess amount of product accumulates at the end of a metabolic pathway. The product then binds to the allosteric site of the first enzyme along the pathway shutting down the pathway. We call this process

The energy storage molecule that connects endergonic and exergonic reactions, driving endergonic reactions forward, is

Existing chemical bonds between atoms are broken and new ones are formed between different atoms. This process

The activation energy of a reaction can be lowered if the reaction is catalyzed by

A single regulatory molecule can shut down multiple metabolic pathways if it is able to

In respiration, chemical energy is transferred from glucose to ATP. The energy transfer however, is not 100% efficient. In the transfer, some of the energy is lost as

Moving ions across a membrane requires energy when

Which of the following substances would most likely enable a flagellum to drive a bacterium forward through the medium in which it is swimming?

Metabolic pathways

Glucose gets used up in muscle cells because

Within the cell, useful chemical energy is held in stable form as

In building a protein, when amino acids are to be bonded together

Positively charged protons move freely from one side of the mitochondrial membrane to

If moving ions across a membrane requires energy it is because

To derive energy from an ATP molecule

If the final product of a metabolic pathway begins to build up in excess, the pathway can often be slowed down by a process called

Light dependent reactions of photosynthesis produce

The wavelengths of light used in photosynthesis are found in the _________ portion of the electromagnetic spectrum.

When light of the correct wavelength hits a photosynthetic pigment molecule

All of the six carbon atoms in each glucose molecule leave respiration in the form of carbon dioxide. Most of them leave during which part of aerobic respiration?

Which of the following phrases best describes the role of NADPH in photosynthesis?

In the process of glycolysis one molecule of _______ is converted to two molecules of __________.

The overall process that uptakes energy-poor molecules (CO2 and H2O) from their reservoirs in nature and converts them into energy-rich molecules is

The process of aerobic respiration begins with

Photosynthesis and respiration are complementing processes within a global cycle known as the

Photosynthesis and respiration are complementary processes within

The value of the three stages of aerobic respiration is their ability to break down glucose, a single molecule, with the resultant production of about

The Krebs cycle’s NADH products are of value because

In photosynthesis, ______ and ______ are used to build_______ and release______.

When electrons flow between photosystems, they ________ which can be used to generate new ____________ molecules.

New molecules of glucose are produced

Accessory pigments enable the chloroplast to

In photosynthesis the H atoms used to make high-energy carbohydrates like glucose come from

In the electron transfer phosphorylation process, ______ is a reactant and _____ is a product.

In the chloroplast, light dependent reactions take place in the __________________ while light independent reactions take place in the __________________.

If fermentation reactions did not occur on earth then in places where no oxygen is available

Oxygen is an important molecule to both respiration and photosynthesis. If evolution created these two processes one after the other, which would probably have had to appear first on earth?

During the electron transfer reactions, protons (H+ ions) are pumped (moved) to one side of the inner membrane of the mitochondrion. The value of this pumping is that the proton gradient is then used

Fermentation of sugar causes grape juice to become wine. In fermentation, the two products given off are ____________ and _________. The latter product accumulates in the wine during the process.

The three metabolic pathways that make up aerobic respiration are really all parts of one larger pathway because

Which of the following is valuable as the most immediate source of the greatest amount of ATP energy given off during aerobic respiration?

Light independent reactions serve to

Identify the correct order of the processes of aerobic respiration

In all of aerobic respiration, the last molecule waiting at the very end to accept electrons

The “powerhouse” organelle within the cell in which electron transfer reactions are occur

In the light-dependent reaction, the two photosystems work together to keep the concentrations of  ______ and ______ appropriate for their amounts needed in the light-independent reaction

During the entire aerobic respiration process, the breakdown of a single molecule of glucose results in the production of

Which of the following is the most immediate source of the greatest amount of ATP energy given off during aerobic respiration?

Fermentation of sugar causes bread dough to “rise”.  In fermentation, the two products given off are ____________ and _________.  The latter product evaporates from the bread during the baking process

A chemoautotroph is an organism that gets its energy from _______________ instead of from _________ as photoautotrophic plants do.  (Heterotrophs like humans use sugar for energy.)

 

Question 1 __________ is a process that uses chlorophyll molecules to produce high­energy carbohydrates.

Question 2 One of the laws governing the behavior of energy in living things describes energy conversion as inefficient, with much energy being lost in the form of

Question 3 During the electron transfer reactions, protons (H+ ions) are pumped (moved) to one side of the inner membrane of the mitochondrion. The value of this pumping is that the proton gradient is then used

Question 4 If the final end product of a metabolic pathway is continually removed and used elsewhere then

Question 5 The immediate product of photosynthesis, three­carbon PGALs

Question 6 In nature, as energy freely changes from one form to another .

Question 7 On a cold day, your cells depend on ________ to maintain an operating temperature of 37 degrees Celsius.

Question 8 An ATP molecule carries potential energy in the easily broken bond

Question 9 The physicist’s definition of energy is _______________ for use in defining energy changes within a living cell.

Question 10 In a crowded, unventilated room, the temperature rises because

Question 11 DNA was discovered by Friederick Miescher; he isolated it from

Question 12 In photosynthesis the H atoms used to make high­energy carbohydrates like glucose come from

Question 13 A lit match cannot continue to burn when the wood of the match stick is consumed. This statement illustrates the more general principle that

Question 14 A producer organism is called a “producer” because it produces

Question 15 The overall process that uptakes energy­poor molecules (CO2 and H2O) from their reservoirs in nature and converts them into energy­rich molecules is

Question 16 Autotrophic organisms are supportive of man. They

Question 17 New molecules of glucose are produced

Question 18 In respiration, chemical energy is transferred from glucose to ATP. The energy transfer however, is not 100% efficient. In the transfer, some of the energy is lost as

Question 19 ______ is freely convertible from one form to another but _______ can never be created or destroyed.

Question 20 The Krebs cycle’s NADH products are of value because

Question 21 When light of the correct wavelength hits a photosynthetic pigment molecule

Question 22 Accessory pigments and chlorophylls work together within the thylakoid membrane in clusters called __________ . They harvest light energy and use it to transfer electrons to _______________.

Question 23 Metabolic pathways

Question 24 Which of the following is not a product of the Krebs cycle?

Question 25 Which of the following is not a major sort/category of energy change within the cell?

 

Question 1 In the process of ____________, three interrelated, exergonic pathways and oxygen are used to igenerate large amounts of ATP from glucose molecules.

Question 2 Accessory pigments enable the chloroplast to

Question 3 For most chemical reactions in the non­living world, the energy required to break bonds in the reactant molecules

Question 4 Which of the following is a stage of aerobic respiration?

Question 5 If the final end product of a metabolic pathway is continually removed and used elsewhere then

Question 6 The Krebs cycle’s NADH products are of value because

Question 7 The final stage of aerobic respiration involves

Question 8 Griffith exposed weak living bacteria to just the fluids from dead virulent bacteria. Some of these weak bacteria became virulent and could now kill mice. What control experiment did he do to argue that his weak bacteria changed to virulence in these studies?

Question 9 Light dependent reactions are carried out both on and in between photosystems. This process is like the last stage of aerobic respiration in that both

Question 10 Three phosphate groups linked to a ribose sugar which, in turn, is linked to a pyrimidine base known as adenine: this phrase describes the structure of

Question 11 Accessory pigments and chlorophylls work together within the thylakoid membrane in clusters called __________ . They harvest light energy and use it to transfer electrons to _______________.

Question 12 DNA was discovered by Friederick Miescher; he isolated it from

Question 13 Photosynthesis and respiration are complementing processes within a global cycle known as the

Question 14 When activation energy is not available for a given chemical reaction

Question 15 Biological information must exist because

Question 16 A single regulatory molecule can shut down multiple metabolic pathways if it is able to

Question 17 A lit match cannot continue to burn when the wood of the match stick is consumed. This statement illustrates the more general principle that

Question 18 ______ is freely convertible from one form to another but _______ can never be created or destroyed.

Question 19 Light dependent reactions of photosynthesis produce

Question 20 The three metabolic pathways that make up aerobic respiration are really all parts of one larger pathway because

Question 21 The immediate source of electrons for electron transfer phosphorylation is

Question 22 To derive energy from an ATP molecule

Question 23 The process of aerobic respiration begins with

Question 24 New molecules of glucose are produced

Question 25 DNA is stored within the ____________ of a cell in a __________ fiber called chromatin.

 

Question 1 New molecules of glucose are produced

Question 2 Glucose + _________ + 36 ADP yields _________ + 6H2O + 36 _________.

Question 3 The energy storage molecule that connects endergonic and exergonic reactions, driving endergonic reactions forward, is

Question 4 If the final product of a metabolic pathway begins to build up in excess, the pathway can often be slowed down by a process called

Question 5 If the final end product of a metabolic pathway is continually removed and used elsewhere then

Question 6 Reactants like hydrogen and oxygen molecules and are converted into a product like water molecules in the course of

Question 7 The structure of DNA was unraveled using

Question 8 The most energetic and useful product of the Krebs cycle is

Question 9 An endergonic reaction always

Question 10 In photosynthesis the H atoms used to make high­energy carbohydrates like glucose come from

Question 11 DNA is stored within the ____________ of a cell in a __________ fiber called chromatin.

Question 12 ________ organisms build their own energy­rich molecules using solar energy.

Question 13 The cell’s pumping of substances against diffusion forces that would carry those substances the other way is termed

Question 14 Autotrophic organisms are supportive of man. They

Question 15 In photosynthesis, ______ and ______ are used to build_______ and release______.

Question 16 The (gene)tic information in a single strand of DNA is found in

Question 17 Systems that convert energy from one form to another are

Question 18 The immediate product of photosynthesis, three­carbon PGALs

Question 19 Photosynthesis and respiration are complementing processes within a global cycle known as the

Question 20 An excess amount of product accumulates at the end of a metabolic pathway. The product then binds to the allosteric site of the first enzyme along the pathway shutting down the pathway. We call this process

Question 21 The activation energy of a reaction can be lowered if the reaction is catalyzed by

Question 22 Which of the following features of glycolysis is a value to the cell?

Question 23 NADPH is formed when

Question 24 Energy supplied to break bonds in reactant molecules is known as

Question 25 Existing chemical bonds between atoms are broken and new ones are formed between different atoms. This process

Question

Question 1 (1 point)

Which nutrient contains the most calories per gram?

Question 1 options:

A) vitamins

B) lipids

C) carbohydrates

D) protein

Save

Question 2 (1 point)

Carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids are considered

Question 2 options:

micronutrients

macronutrients

antioxidants

free radicals

Save

Question 3 (1 point)

Which is a fat-soluble vitamin?

Question 3 options:

calcium

B6

C

D

Save

Question 4 (1 point)

Which type of research study compares disease rates among population groups, and attempts to identify related conditions or behaviors?

Question 4 options:

placebo

clinical trial

case control

epidemiological

Save

Question 5 (1 point)

Which is not a “red flag” of inaccurate or exaggerated science?

Question 5 options:

recommendations made to help sell a product

recommendations that promise a quick fix

recommendations from a peer-reviewed journal

simplistic conclusions drawn from a single study

Save

Question 6 (1 point)

6.The starches and sugars found in grains, vegetables, legumes, and fruits are

Question 6 options:

carbohydrates

lipids

inorganic compounds

phytochemicals

Save

Question 7 (1 point)

A research study is said to be double-blind if

Question 7 options:

a change that reflects the participants’ expectations is observed

the subject knows that he/she is receiving two treatments during the experiment

neither the subjects nor the investigators know which study group is receiving the placebo

the placebo has two possible effects on the study group

Save

Question 8 (1 point)

One example of a chemical in food that is not a nutrient is

Question 8 options:

fiber

vitamin C

starch

magnesium

Save

Question 9 (1 point)

The six classes of nutrients in foods are carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, vitamins, minerals, and water

Question 9 options:

True

False

Save

Question 10 (1 point)

The study of how different foods can interact with genes to alter a person’s risk of developing a chronic disease is called nutrigenomics

Question 10 options:

True

False

Save

Question 11 (1 point)

Described as a set of people being studied to evaluate the effect of an event, substance, or technique

Question 11 options:

Correlations

Experimental group

Case control studies

Nutrigenomics

Save

Question 12 (1 point)

Proteins are organic compounds made of smaller building blocks called

Question 12 options:

Fatty acids

Carbohydrates

Glycerol

Amino Acids

Save

Question 13 (1 point)

Substances in plants that may possess health-protective effects, even though they are not essential for life

Question 13 options:

Phytochemicals

Antioxidants

Macronutrients

Micronutrients

Save

Question 14 (1 point)

In a study of how vitamin E may reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease, one group was given a placebo, and the other group was given vitamin E supplements. The group that received the placebo was the

Question 14 options:

control group

experimental group

double-blind group

hypothetical group

Save

Question 15 (1 point)

Protein, fat, and ___________ are the macronutrients.

Question 15 options:

Lipids

Vitamins

antioxidants

carbohydrates

Save

Question 16 (1 point)

The _____ are the maximum levels of daily nutrient intakes that are unlikely to pose health risks to almost all individuals in the group for whom they are designed

Question 16 options:

Tolerable Upper Intake Level(s)

The Recommended Daily Allowance

Adequate Intake

Estimated Average Requirements

Save

Question 17 (1 point)

The nutrient intake level estimated to meet the needs of 50% of the individuals in a life-stage and gender group is known as

Question 17 options:

Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)

Tolerable Upper Intake Level (ULs)

Adequate Intake (AI)

Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)

Save

Question 18 (1 point)

What components of a food label can help consumers compare the amounts of nutrients in a food to the amount of that nutrient that is recommended for consumption each day?

Question 18 options:

Upper Tolerable Limits

Ingredient List

Daily Values

Recommended Dietary Allowance

Save

Question 19 (1 point)

Which nutrient is not required to be posted on the Nutrition Facts panel?

Question 19 options:

carbohydrates

fats

water

some selected vitamins such as vitamin A and C

Save

Question 20 (1 point)

Percent Daily Values (%DV) represent a _______ calorie/day diet.

Question 20 options:

1,500

2,000

2,200

2,500

Save

Question 21 (1 point)

Ingredients on food labels should be listed in order of

Question 21 options:

highest concentration to lowest concentration

carbohydrates, fats, and proteins

descending order by weight

fats, carbohydrates, and proteins

Save

Question 22 (1 point)

Health researchers have discovered links between diet and high blood pressure, cancer, and heart disease

Question 22 options:

True

False

Save

Question 23 (1 point)

Chronic diseases such as heart disease, cancer, stroke, and diabetes have all been linked to over nutrition

Question 23 options:

True

False

Save

Question 24 (1 point)

Compared to a baked potato, French fries are more nutrient dense.

Question 24 options:

True

False

Save

Question 25 (1 point)

What best describes the term balance as part of menu planning

Question 25 options:

selecting a variety of foods at each meal

selecting foods that are high in calories only at one meal

planning more of a plant-based diet

consuming enough, but not too much from all of the different food groups

Save

Question 26 (1 point)

Foods high in nutrient density are those that provide substantial amounts of vitamins and minerals and relatively few calories

Question 26 options:

True

False

Save

Question 27 (1 point)

The following is an example of a health claim:

Adequate calcium and vitamin D along with regular exercise may reduce the risk of osteoporosis

Question 27 options:

True

False

Save

Question 28 (1 point)

The following are all examples of a nutrient content claim for a “free food” on a food label- fat-free, bug-free, sodium –free and calorie-free.

Question 28 options:

True

False

Save

Question 29 (1 point)

Vitamin C prevents scurvy is an example of a structure/function claim.

Question 29 options:

True

False

Save

Question 30 (1 point)

The three types of claims allowed on a food label or dietary supplement are nutrient content claims, health claims and cures of disease claims

Question 30 options:

True

False

Save

Question 31 (1 point)

A food that may provide a health benefit beyond basic nutrition is known as a

Question 31 options:

free radical

functional food

direct additive

indirect additive

Save

Question 32 (1 point)

What best describes a short-lived, highly reactive chemical that can have detrimental effects on cells?

Question 32 options:

free radical

functional food

direct additive

indirect additive

Save

Question 33 (1 point)

A substance continually produced in our cells that, over time, may cause damage to DNA and other important cell structures is known as a

Question 33 options:

free radical

functional food

direct additive

indirect additive

Save

Question 34 (1 point)

Substances in plants that help resist the attacks of bacteria and fungi, the ravages of free radicals, and increased levels of ultraviolet light from the sun are

Question 34 options:

free radicals

phytochemicals

indirect additives

alternative medicine

Save

Question 35 (1 point)

Substances added to foods for a specific purpose are called _____________.

Question 35 options:

supplements

direct additives

phytochemicals

free radicals

Save

Question 36 (1 point)

Calcium-fortified orange juice, breakfast cereal fortified with folic acid, and yogurt with live active cultures are all examples of

Question 36 options:

foods enhanced with functional ingredients

examples of regulatory issues for functional foods

examples of indirect additives

all of the above are true

Save

Question 37 (1 point)

The therapeutic use of herbs and other plants to promote health and treat disease is called

Question 37 options:

Herbal therapy (phytotherapy)

Megadosing

Macrobiotic dieting

Orthomolecular medicine

Save

Question 38 (1 point)

Lycopene is commonly found in

Question 38 options:

garlic

tomato sauce

yogurt

toothpaste

Save

Question 39 (1 point)

True or False? Garlic contains sulfur compounds that may increase heart disease risk.

Question 39 options:

True

False

Save

Question 40 (1 point)

True or False? Phytochemicals are complex plant chemicals that are essential for human life.

Question 40 options:

True

False

Save

Question 41 (1 point)

True or False? Structure/function claims must be based on a food’s nutritive value.

Question 41 options:

True

False

Save

Question 42 (1 point)

True or False? Health care professionals often discourage moderate nutrient supplementation for people with elevated nutrient needs.

Question 42 options:

True

False

Save

Question 43 (1 point)

True or False? Phytochemicals help neutralize free radicals.

Question 43 options:

True

False

Save

Question 44 (1 point)

True or False? Dietary supplements can include vitamins, minerals, animo acids, carotenoids, bioflavonoids, and probiotics.

Question 44 options:

True

False

Save

Question 45 (1 point)

True or False? Under FDA guidelines, a functional food’s label may have a nutrient content claim, health claim, or structure/function claim.

Question 45 options:

True

False

Save

Question 46 (1 point)

True or False? A structure/function claim describes the link between a nutrient and a deficiency disease, and can base claims on their own review and interpretation of the scientific literature

Question 46 options:

True

False

Save

Question 47 (1 point)

True or False? Like food labels, supplement labels have both mandatory and optional information

Question 47 options:

True

False

Save

Question 48 (1 point)

True or False? Excesses of some nutrients can create deficits of other nutrients.

Question 48 options:

True

False

Save

Question 49 (1 point)

Soybeans and soy products are a good source of the two isoflavonesdaidzein and genistein.

Question 49 options:

True

False

Save

Question 50 (1 point)

Two useful questions to ask when you visit a health information Web site are:

1) Who runs the site?

2) Why have they created the site?

Question 50 options:

True

False

Save

Week Four Quiz
Chapter 9 Muscular System: Histology and Physiology________________________________________

1. Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscle?
a. body movement

b. maintenance of posture

c. respiration

d. constriction of organs

e. production of heat
2. Which of the following is true?
a. Skeletal muscle is capable of spontaneous contraction.

b. Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs.

c. Cardiac muscle cells have multiple nuclei.

d. Smooth muscle cells are long and cylindrical.

e. There is a small amount of smooth muscle in the heart.
3. Which type of muscle tissue has cells that branch?
a. skeletal muscle

b. smooth muscle

c. cardiac muscle

d. both skeletal and cardiac muscle

e. both cardiac and smooth muscle
4. Hypertrophy of skeletal muscles from weight lifting is caused by an increase in the
a. number of muscle fibers.

b. size of muscle fibers.

c. number of striations.

d. number of nuclei within the muscle fibers.

e. number of muscle cells.
5. Actin myofilaments
a. resemble bundles of minute golf clubs.

b. contain both myosin and tropomyosin.

c. are held in place by the M line.

d. contain strands of fibrous actin.

e. are the thickest proteins in muscle.
6. When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal,
a. calcium ions diffuse into the presynaptic terminal through voltage-gated ion channels.

b. acetylcholine moves into the presynaptic terminal.

c. a local potential is generated in the presynaptic terminal.

d. ligand-gated ion channels in the presynaptic terminal are opened.

e. nothing else happens.
7. In excitation-contraction coupling,
a. calcium ions must bind with myosin to expose active sites on actin.

b. myosin heads bind to exposed active sites on actin.

c. cross-bridges form between myosin heads and calcium ions.

d. movement of the troponin-tropomyosin complex causes actin myofilaments to slide.

e. ATP binds to actin myofilaments.
8. Which of the following helps explain the increased tension seen in multiple wave summation?
a. increased motor unit recruitment

b. increased concentration of calcium ions around the myofibrils

c. exposure of more active sites on myosin myofilaments

d. the breakdown of elastic elements in the cell

e. decreased stimulus frequency
9. An isotonic contraction is described as
a. action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs.

b. a muscle produces constant tension during contraction.

c. a muscle produces an increasing tension during contraction.

d. a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens.

e. a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.
10. Which type of respiration occurs in the mitochondria?
a. anaerobic respiration

b. aerobic respiration

c. both anaerobic and aerobic respiration
Chapter 10 Muscular System: Gross Anatomy________________________________________

1. The sternocleidomastoid muscle extends from the mastoid process of the temporal bone to the sternum and medial clavicle. When both sternocleidomastoid muscles contract, the head is flexed. The end of the muscle that connects to the sternum is the
a. origin.

b. belly.

c. body.

d. insertion.

e. fixator.

2. Which of the following represents a class I lever system?
a. crossing your legs

b. hyperextension of the head

c. standing on your tiptoes

d. flexion of the elbow to elevate the hand

e. lifting weight with your arm

3. In order to stabilize the hyoid so that the larynx can be elevated in swallowing, the _____ muscle group is used.
a. Pterygoid

b. Infrahyoid

c. Auricularis

d. Suprahyoid

e. Hyoglossus

4. If abdominal muscles are contracted while the vertebral column is fixed this will aid in
a. vomiting.

b. childbirth.

c. urination.

d. defecation.

e. All of these choices are correct.

5. Which muscle will depress the scapula or elevate the ribs?
a. levator scapulae

b. serratus anterior

c. pectoralis minor

d. subclavius

e. rhomboideus major
6. Which of the following muscles extends the forearm and has its insertion on the ulna?
a. Deltoid

b. biceps brachii

c. triceps brachii

d. Brachialis

e. Coracobrachialis

7. The gluteus maximus
a. does most of the work in “sit-ups.”

b. accounts for a sprinter’s stance.

c. allows one to sit cross-legged.

d. is used in the knee-jerk reflex.

e. is a common site for injections.
8. Label muscle “A” on the diagram.
a. orbicularis oculi

b. temporalis

c. Trapezius

d. Sternocleidomastoid

e. masseter
9. Label muscle “A” on the diagram.
a. linea alba

b. serratus anterior

c. rectus abdominis

d. external oblique

e. internal oblique
10. What does “A” represent?
a. Coracobrachialis

b. Deltoid

c. pectoralis major

d. biceps brachii

 

Week Four Quiz
Chapter 9 Muscular System: Histology and Physiology________________________________________

1. Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscle?
a. body movement

b. maintenance of posture

c. respiration

d. constriction of organs

e. production of heat
2. Which of the following is true?
a. Skeletal muscle is capable of spontaneous contraction.

b. Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs.

c. Cardiac muscle cells have multiple nuclei.

d. Smooth muscle cells are long and cylindrical.

e. There is a small amount of smooth muscle in the heart.
3. Which type of muscle tissue has cells that branch?
a. skeletal muscle

b. smooth muscle

c. cardiac muscle

d. both skeletal and cardiac muscle

e. both cardiac and smooth muscle
4. Hypertrophy of skeletal muscles from weight lifting is caused by an increase in the
a. number of muscle fibers.

b. size of muscle fibers.

c. number of striations.

d. number of nuclei within the muscle fibers.

e. number of muscle cells.
5. Actin myofilaments
a. resemble bundles of minute golf clubs.

b. contain both myosin and tropomyosin.

c. are held in place by the M line.

d. contain strands of fibrous actin.

e. are the thickest proteins in muscle.
6. When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal,
a. calcium ions diffuse into the presynaptic terminal through voltage-gated ion channels.

b. acetylcholine moves into the presynaptic terminal.

c. a local potential is generated in the presynaptic terminal.

d. ligand-gated ion channels in the presynaptic terminal are opened.

e. nothing else happens.
7. In excitation-contraction coupling,
a. calcium ions must bind with myosin to expose active sites on actin.

b. myosin heads bind to exposed active sites on actin.

c. cross-bridges form between myosin heads and calcium ions.

d. movement of the troponin-tropomyosin complex causes actin myofilaments to slide.

e. ATP binds to actin myofilaments.
8. Which of the following helps explain the increased tension seen in multiple wave summation?
a. increased motor unit recruitment

b. increased concentration of calcium ions around the myofibrils

c. exposure of more active sites on myosin myofilaments

d. the breakdown of elastic elements in the cell

e. decreased stimulus frequency
9. An isotonic contraction is described as
a. action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs.

b. a muscle produces constant tension during contraction.

c. a muscle produces an increasing tension during contraction.

d. a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens.

e. a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.
10. Which type of respiration occurs in the mitochondria?
a. anaerobic respiration

b. aerobic respiration

c. both anaerobic and aerobic respiration
Chapter 10 Muscular System: Gross Anatomy________________________________________

1. The sternocleidomastoid muscle extends from the mastoid process of the temporal bone to the sternum and medial clavicle. When both sternocleidomastoid muscles contract, the head is flexed. The end of the muscle that connects to the sternum is the
a. origin.

b. belly.

c. body.

d. insertion.

e. fixator.

2. Which of the following represents a class I lever system?
a. crossing your legs

b. hyperextension of the head

c. standing on your tiptoes

d. flexion of the elbow to elevate the hand

e. lifting weight with your arm

3. In order to stabilize the hyoid so that the larynx can be elevated in swallowing, the _____ muscle group is used.
a. Pterygoid

b. Infrahyoid

c. Auricularis

d. Suprahyoid

e. Hyoglossus

4. If abdominal muscles are contracted while the vertebral column is fixed this will aid in
a. vomiting.

b. childbirth.

c. urination.

d. defecation.

e. All of these choices are correct.

5. Which muscle will depress the scapula or elevate the ribs?
a. levator scapulae

b. serratus anterior

c. pectoralis minor

d. subclavius

e. rhomboideus major
6. Which of the following muscles extends the forearm and has its insertion on the ulna?
a. Deltoid

b. biceps brachii

c. triceps brachii

d. Brachialis

e. Coracobrachialis

7. The gluteus maximus
a. does most of the work in “sit-ups.”

b. accounts for a sprinter’s stance.

c. allows one to sit cross-legged.

d. is used in the knee-jerk reflex.

e. is a common site for injections.
8. Label muscle “A” on the diagram.
a. orbicularis oculi

b. temporalis

c. Trapezius

d. Sternocleidomastoid

e. masseter
9. Label muscle “A” on the diagram.
a. linea alba

b. serratus anterior

c. rectus abdominis

d. external oblique

e. internal oblique
10. What does “A” represent?
a. Coracobrachialis

b. Deltoid

c. pectoralis major

d. biceps brachii

e. serratus anterior
 

 

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Which of the following statements about the Domain Bacteria is TRUE?
A) Bacteria are able to increase their genetic variability by reproducing sexually.
B) Bacteria are multicellular microbes.
C) Chloroplasts are found in photosynthetic bacteria.
D) Bacteria lack membrane-bound organelles.
E) Bacterial endospores are fragile structures that are easily destroyed.
2) In bacteria, the small, circular pieces of DNA that are located outside the chromosome are called
A) flagella.
B) bacteriophages.
C) sex pili.
D) plasmids.
E) endospores.
3) The mutations that improve the survival and reproduction of organisms, and thus contribute to
the evolution of species, arise rapidly in prokaryotes due to their
A) rapid rates of cell division.
B) anaerobic metabolism.
C) sexual reproduction.
D) cell wall composition.
E) absence of a nucleus.
4) The use of bacteria to break down pollutants is referred to as
A) nitrogen-fixation.
B) binary fission.
C) biofixation.
D) bioremediation.
E) biosynthesis.
5) Disease-causing bacteria are called
A) Archaea.
B) cyanobacteria.
C) pathogens.
D) protozoa.
E) viroids.
6) Which Protist causes a sexually transmitted disease?
A) Trichomonas
B) Trypanosoma
C) Giardia
D) Plasmodium
E) Pfiesteria
7) Which of the following is FALSE?
A) Viruses are smaller than bacteria.
B) Viruses are not living organisms.
C) Antibiotics cannot prevent or treat viral diseases.
D) The genetic material of viruses is not contained in a nucleus.
E) Viruses are classified in the domain Archaea.
8) A virus basically consists of
A) RNA or DNA and a membrane.
B) enzymes and a protein coat.
C) RNA or DNA and enzymes.
D) RNA or DNA and a protein coat.
E) proteins and a cell membrane.
9) Viroids
A) attack bacteria.
B) are infectious pieces of DNA enclosed in a protein coat.
C) are infectious chains of amino acids.
D) are infectious pieces of RNA.
E) have a plasma membrane.
10) Are viruses alive or are they just biologically active chemicals? Explain your reasoning.

TRUE/FALSE. Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

11) The Kingdom Protista is a group that can best be defined as “any eukaryote that is not a plant, animal, or fungus.” True or False?

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
12) Phytoplankton are very important to the aquatic ecosystems because they
A) produce glucose.
B) produce oxygen.
C) absorb carbon dioxide.
D) All of the above are true.
E) None of the above are true.
13) Individuals of which protist group can grow hundreds of feet long, and almost half a foot per
day?
A) brown algae
B) cyanobacteria
C) slime molds
D) phytoplankton
E) water molds
14) Which of the following is considered to be most closely related to the plants?
A) green algae
B) slime molds
C) diatoms
D) brown algae
E) euglenids
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
15) What would life on Earth be like today, had eukaryotic protists not evolved?
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
16) Fungal hyphae usually are
A) diploid.

B) haploid.

c. triploid
d. n + n
17) The haploid, single-celled product of mitosis is
A) sporophyte
B) gametophyte
C) zygote
D) spore
E) gamete
18) Claviceps purpurea is an organism from phylum ________. It infects rye plants and produces
toxins (including LSD) that can produce convulsions, hallucinations, and death if consumed by
a person.
A) Ascomycota
B) Chytriiomycota
C) Deuteromycota
D) Zygomycota
E) Basidiomycota
19) If a strong fungicide is released and eliminates all the fungi in an ecosystem, which of the
following is likely to happen?
A) an accumulation of dead and discarded plant and animal tissues
B) increased rate of photosynthesis
C) faster breakdown of leaf litter
D) improved soil fertility
E) improved growth of plant species
20) A gametophyte is
A) haploid.
B) diploid.
C) triploid.
D) tetraploid.
E) unable to survive.
21) The first cell after fertilization is the
A) sporophyte.
B) spore.
C) zygote.
D) seed.
E) embryo.
22) Bryophytes
A) are mosses and liverworts.
B) have poorly developed conducting tissues.
C) lack true roots and leaves.
D) A and B
E) all of the above
23) Ginkgoes are classified as a/an
A) bryophyte.

B) gymnosperm.
C) seedless vascular plant.

D) angiosperm.
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
24) Explain the difference between an angiosperm seed and a gymnosperm seed.

25) If motility is considered a characteristic of animals, why are stationary creatures like
sponges and crinoids still considered to be animals?

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
26) Between the organs and the body wall, complex animals have a body cavity called a
A) cnidarian.
B) coelom.
C) mesoderm.
D) thorax.
E) mesoglea.
27) Which of the following characteristics is associated with all animals that are bilaterally
symmetrical at some point in the life cycle?
A) coelom
B) mesoderm
C) cephalization
D) lack of organs
E) gastrovascular cavity
28) Segmentation is important in the evolution of animals because
A) it allows them to be bigger.
B) it increases the number of tissue layers present.
C) it allows for specialization of function.
D) A and B
E) B and C
29) How can flatworms survive without a respiratory system?
A) They are flat, allowing diffusion of gases directly to and from cells.
B) They are small, allowing diffusion of gases directly to and from cells.
C) They are not very metabolically active, and there is no need for a more efficient means of
gas exchange.
D) They have a thin, moist covering that facilitates gas exchange.
E) All of these are true.
30) The taxonomic group containing the largest and most intelligent invertebrates is
A) Aves.
B) Cephalopoda.
C) Uniramia.
D) Gastropoda.
E) Chordata.
31) Which of the following phyla contains animals that reproduce asexually?
A) Platyhelminthes
B) Nematoda
C) Mollusca
D) Cnidaria
E) Annelida
32) The leeches used by doctors to prevent blood clotting and stimulate blood vessel growth in
patients recovering from reconstructive surgery are members of the phylum
A) Cnidaria.
B) Platyhelminthes.
C) Annelida.
D) Nematoda.
E) Arthropoda.
33) All chordates have ________.
A) pharyngeal gill slits
B) bilateral symmetry
C) a fully lined body cavity
D) a dorsal, hollow nerve cord
E) all of the above
34) Which of the following features do humans share with other chordates?
A) Humans have a nerve cord.
B) Humans develop a tail in early development.
C) Humans develop a notochord in early development.
D) Humans develop gill slits in early development.
E) Humans have all of these features.
35) Mammals have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
A) mammary glands.
B) hair.
C) lungs.
D) a four-chambered heart.
E) All of the above are mammalian characteristics.
36) A fish with fins containing rod-shaped bones surrounded by muscle is a(n)
A) hagfish.
B) lobe-finned fish.
C) lamprey.
D) shark.
E) ray-finned fish.
37) Monotremes differ from other mammals in that they
A) have nipples.
B) have hair.
C) lay eggs.
D) have a four-chambered heart.
E) do not produce milk.
38) ________ are the mammals with the most number of species.
A) Bats
B) Rodents
C) Primates
D) Whales
E) Marsupials
39) After eating at the new Mexican restaurant in town, you develop a mild case of food poisoning. Consequently, you never go back there again to eat. This is an example of
A) trial and error learning.

B) habituation.
C) operant conditioning.

D) insight learning.
40) Innate animal behavior is
A) nonadaptive.
B) learned.
C) not under genetic control.
D) instinctive.
E) both learned and instinctive.
41) A decline in response to a harmless, repeated stimulus is called
A) imprinting.
B) a sensitive period.
C) insight learning.
D) instinctive behavior.
E) habituation.
42) A worm learns to associate a flash of light with an electric shock by
A) operant conditioning.
B) insight learning.
C) imprinting.
D) habituation.
E) trial and error learning.
43) Normal fruit fly larvae move away from their food after eating. However, some larvae that were subjected to X-rays remain near or in their food after eating. There is a consistent difference in the DNA of these two types of larvae. What can be concluded about this behavior?
A) It appears to have a genetic component but is altered by experience.
B) It appears to be entirely learned.
C) It has a clear genetic component.
D) Nothing can be concluded about this behavior from the information provided.
44) What advantage does sound communication have over visual communication?
A) It is more quickly perceived.
B) It uses less energy.
C) It is not as likely to attract predators.
D) It can communicate better the degree of an animal’s readiness for a particular behavior.
E) It can be transmitted over distances even when physical barriers exist.
45) All the following are pheromones EXCEPT
A) sex attractants produced by Japanese beetles.
B) light emitted by fireflies.
C) queen substance produced by honeybees.
D) urine used by wolves to mark territories.
E) trail substances produced by ants.
46) Territoriality
A) results in every individual in a population successfully breeding.
B) decreases aggression within a population.
C) increases the size of a population.
D) All are correct.
E) B and C are correct.
47) Human facial expressions in response to various emotions
A) vary according to race.
B) vary tremendously from culture to culture.
C) are remarkably similar among different cultures.
D) vary according to age.
E) vary according to sex.
48) Studies of identical human twins have shown that
A) they exhibit vastly different behavioral traits if raised in different environments.
B) they do not live as long as fraternal twins live.
C) their genes appear to have a great deal of influence on their behavior.
D) they are no more alike than are fraternal twins.
E) behavior does not depend on the types of genes present.
49) A hungry newborn human infant, touched on the side of her mouth, will turn her head and
attempt to suckle. This example of behavior is
A) not under genetic control.
B) nonadaptive.
C) instinctive.
D) learned.
E) a combination of all the above choices.
50) Behaviors that we call “play”
A) are only observed in humans.

B) never occur in adults.
C) can be dangerous.

D) cannot be adaptive.