Day: April 27, 2018

1. Water-soluble hormones, such as proteins and peptide hormones, activate target cells using _______.

a. direct gene activation

b. the second-messenger system

c. steroid hormone action

d. diffusion

2. The most common stimulus for prodding endocrine glands into action is ________.

a. hormonal

b. humoral

c. neural

d. direct gene activation

3. The endocrine gland most closely associated with the hypothalamus is the ________.

a. thymus

b. pineal gland

c. thyroid gland

d. pituitary gland

4. The target organ of thyrotropic hormone (TH), or thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), is the     ________ gland.

a. adrenal

b. pineal

c. pituitary

d. thyroid

5. Alcohol suppresses the production of this hormone, ________, which normally promotes water

retention and prevents dehydration.

a. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

b. aldosterone

c. thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

d. cortisolUnit 3 Examination 128 GED 102 The Human Body

6. The hypothalamus makes two hormones, ________ and ________, that are stored by the posterior pituitary.

a. oxytocin; antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

b. cortisol; aldosterone

c. growth hormone; prolactin

d. antidiuretic hormone (ADH); prolactin

7. Normal blood pH falls in a range between ________ to ________.

a. 7.1; 7.2

b. 7.35; 7.45

c. 7.6; 7.75

d. 7.85; 8.05

8. An important plasma protein that contributes to the osmotic pressure of blood is ________.

a. thyroglobulin

b. fibrin

c. albumin

d. glucose

9. The percentage of erythrocytes in blood is known as the ________.

a. hematocrit

b. buffy coat

c. hemoglobin

d. plasma

10. Each hemoglobin molecule is able to transport ________ molecule(s) of oxygen.

a. one

b. two

c. three

d. four

11. A decrease in the oxygen-carrying ability of the blood, for any reason, is a condition known as ________.

a. polycythemia

b. leukemia

c. anemia

d. leukocytosis

12. Life at a high altitude can lead to a red blood cell disorder known as ________.

a. anemia

b. polycythemia

c. leukocytosis

d. leukemia

13. The layer of the heart wall that receives the stimulus from letter E is called the ________.

a. pericardium

b. epicardium

c. endocardium

d. myocardium

14. The partition where the bundle branches are located is called the ________.

a. left atrioventricular groove

b. interatrial septum

c. interventricular septum

d. right atrioventricular groove

15. The pointed, inferior portion of the heart, known as the ________, rests on the diaphragm and is oriented toward the left hip.

a. base

b. mediastinum

c. apex

d. pericardium

16. The visceral layer of the serous pericardium is actually the same layer as the ________.

a. epicardium

b. myocardium

c. fibrous pericardium

d. endocardium

17. The two superior receiving chambers of the heart are known as the ________, while the two inferior discharging chambers of the heart are known as the ________.

a. ventricles; atria

b. atria; ventricles

c. arteries; veins

d. veins; arteries

18. The valves located between the atria and ventricles are known as the ________ valves.

a. pulmonary

b. atrioventricular (AV)

c. aortic

d. semilunar

19. Blood leaves the left ventricle through an artery known as the ________.

a. pulmonary trunk

b. aorta

c. superior vena cava

d. coronary sinus

20. Lymph fluid and some plasma proteins originate (escape) from the ________.

a. intracellular fluid

b. blood vascular system

c. endocrine system

d. respiratory system

21. Excess accumulation of fluid, which impairs the exchange of materials within the tissues, is called ________.

a. stroke

b. shock

c. edema

d. MALT (mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue)

22. The ________ duct drains lymph from the right arm and the right side of the head and thorax.

a. brachiocephalic

b. subclavian

c. thoracic

d. right lymphatic

23. Bacteria and tumor cells are removed from lymph by ________.

a. lymph nodes

b. tonsils

c. the spleen

d. thymus

24. The role of the ________ is to trap and remove bacteria or other foreign pathogens entering the throat.

a. thymus

b. spleen

c. tonsils

d. lymph node

25. Peyer’s patches and the tonsils are part of the collection of small lymphoid tissues that protect the upper respiratory and digestive tracts from infection and are referred to as ________.

a. lymph nodes

b. MALT or mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue

c. germinal centers

d. lymphatics

 

1. The three mucosa-covered projections into the nasal cavity that greatly increase surface area of mucosa exposed to air are called ________.

a. tonsils

b. adenoids

c. conchae

d. paranasal sinuses

2. The posterior portion of the palate that is not supported by bone is called the ________.

a. soft palate

b. paranasal sinus

c. epiglottis

d. hard palate

3. From superior to inferior, the three regions of the pharynx are the ________.

a. oropharynx, nasopharynx, laryngopharynx

b. nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx

c laryngopharynx, oropharynx, nasopharynx

d. nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, oropharynx

4. The ________ tonsil, or adenoid, is located high in the nasopharynx region.

a. lingual

b. laryngeal

c. pharyngeal

d. palatine

5. The ________ routes air and food into their proper channels and plays a role in speech.

a. tongue

b. pharynx

c. nasal conchae

d. larynx

6. The mucosa-lined windpipe that extends from the larynx to the level of the fifth thoracic vertebra is called the ________.

a. trachea

b. oropharynx

c. main (primary) bronchus

d. nasopharynx

7. ________ lining the mucosa of the trachea beat continuously to propel contaminated mucus to the throat.

a. Microvilli

b. Coarse hairs

c. Cilia

d. Flagella

8. The process of physically and chemically breaking food particles down is referred to as ________.

a. digestion

b. defecation

c. ingestion

d. absorption

9. The ________ runs from the pharynx through the diaphragm to the stomach.

a. trachea

b. esophagus

c. larynx

d. small intestine

10. The innermost layer of the alimentary canal is referred to as the ________.

a. serosa

b. submucosa

c. mucosa

d. muscularis externa

11. The two intrinsic nerve plexuses serving the alimentary canal are the ________.

a. solar; sympathetic

b. submucosa; myenteric

c. autonomic; somatic

d. mucosa; submucosa

12. The ________ sphincter, or valve, controls food movement from the stomach into the small intestine.

a. ileocecal

b. cardioesophageal

c. pyloric

d. anal

13. Large wrinkle-like folds in the stomach lining, present when the stomach is empty, that allow for expansion when the stomach is filling are called ________.

a. villi

b. haustra

c. microvilli

d. rugae

14. The medial indentation where the ureter, blood vessels, and nerves are connected to the kidney is called the ________.

a. renal capsule

b. renal column

c. renal pyramid

d. renal hilum

15. There are three regions of the kidney; the outermost region is known as the ________.

a. renal medulla

b. renal cortex

c. renal pelvis

d. renal hilum

16. Renal (medullary) pyramids are separated by extensions of cortex-like tissue called the ________.

a. renal columns

b. renal pelvis

c. renal hilum

d. renal capsule

17. The blood vessel carrying blood from the aorta into the kidney is the ________.

a. hepatic artery

b. renal artery

c. renal vein

d. glomerulus

18. The functional unit of the kidney that filters blood and forms urine is the ________.

a. glomerulus

b. nephron

c. renal pyramid

d. renal pelvis

19. The blood vessel directly feeding the glomerulus with blood from the cortical radiate artery is the ________.

a. peritubular capillary

b. efferent arteriole

c. renal vein

d. afferent arteriole

20. The gonads produce sex cells, also known as ________,

a. zygotes

b. interstitial cells

c. gametes

d. spermatids

21. Sperm are formed in tightly coiled tubes called seminiferous tubules that are found within each ________.

a. spermatic cord

b. testis

c. ductus (vas) deferens

d. epididymis

22. The glands that produce a thick, yellowish secretion which nourishes and activates sperm are the ________.

a. bulbo-urethral glands

b. prostate

c. seminal glands (vesicles)

d. ejaculatory duct

23. The ________ gland surrounds the upper portion of the urethra just below the junction with the urinary bladder.

a. ejaculatory

b. seminal

c. bulbo-urethral

d. prostate

24. The enlarged tip of the penis is called the ________.

a. glans penis

b. shaft

c. scrotum

d. prepuce (foreskin)

25. The male external genitalia include the ________ and the ________.

a. testes; ductus (vas) deferens

b. spermatic cord; glans penis

c. penis; scrotum

d. seminal glands (vesicles); ejaculatory duct

Question

1. Which of the following includes all the others?

A) atom

B) cell

C) organism

D) population

2. In science, a hypothesis must be

A) testable

B) derived from a theory

C) a known fact

D) able to be proven absolutely true

3. A chlorine atom has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 17 electrons. The atomic number of chlorine is

A) 8

B) 17

C) 35

D) 52

4. If you place the probe of a pH meter in lye or sodium hydroxide (NaOH), it will read pH 14. Sodium hydroxide is

A) an acid

B) neutral

C) a base

5. This polysaccharide forms fibers that are a major component of plant cell walls:

A) glucose

B) starch

C) cellulose

D) glycogen

6. Which of these types of molecules contain nitrogen?

A) polysaccharides

B) proteins

C) steroids

7. Fats contain more energy per gram than carbohydrates or proteins because

A) fat molecules contain a lower percentage of oxygen atoms

B) fat molecules contain a lower percentage of hydrogen atoms

C) fat molecules contain a lower percentage of carbon atoms

D) fat molecules contain a higher percentage of adipose atoms

8. Prokaryotic cells, with no nucleus or membranous organelles, are found in

A) animals

B) bacteria

C) fungi

D) plants

9. The main function of a ribosome is to

A) extract energy from glucose

B) synthesize glucose

C) store food in the form of fat

D) synthesize proteins

10. Mitochondria

A) package proteins for secretion from cell

B) contain chromosomes

C) are sites of oxidation of glucose to generate ATP

D) synthesize proteins

11. The plasma membrane consists of

A) a single layer of phospholipid molecules

B) a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which proteins are embedded

C) several layers of protein and carbohydrate molecules

D) a triple layer of phospholipids and carbohydrates

12. The movement of molecules from a region of low concentration across a membrane to a region of high concentration by use of ATP energy is

A) active transport

B) diffusion

C) passive transport

D) osmosis

13. The oxygen in our atmosphere is produced by

A) greenhouse effect

B) cellular respiration

C) photosynthesis

D) volcanic eruptions

14. Yeast cells break down glucose anaerobically into

A) ethanol and CO2

B) lactic acid and CO2

C) lactic acid and H2O

D) ethanol and H2O

15. Carbon dioxide is released in

A) the light-dependent phase of photosynthesis

B) the Krebs cycle

C) glycolysis

D) the Calvin cycle

16. If the concentration of glucose in the water outside of a cell is lower than the concentration inside

A) water will tend to enter the cell by osmosis

B) water will tend to leave the cell by osmosis

C) glucose will tend to enter the cell by osmosis

D) glucose will tend to leave the cell by osmosis

17. What happens if a red blood cell is placed in a hypertonic solution?

A) the cell will shrink

B) the cell will swell and may burst

C) the cell will remain the same size

18. Which of the following is not a characteristic of enzymes?

A) they are proteins

B) they speed up the rate of chemical reactions

C) they act on specific substances called substrates

D) they are used up in each reaction, thus need to be produced in large quantities

19. Which of these does not have to be present for photosynthesis to occur?

A) water

B) carbon dioxide

C) glucose

D) chlorophyll

20. Each new cell produced by this process will have an identical copy of all chromosomes and genes possessed by the parent cell:

A) mitosis

B) meiosis

21. During the first division of meiosis,

A) chromosomes separate at the centromere

B) homologous chromosomes separate

C) chromosomes become triploid

22. If a normal parent and an albino parent have albino child, the genotypes of the parents are

A) AA x Aa

B) Aa x Aa

C) Aa x aa

D) aa x aa

23. The number of chromosomes in a human egg cell is

A) 4

B) 23

C) 46

D) 48

24. A change in DNA base sequence from CATAC to CACAC would describe

A) translation

B) replication

C) transcription

D) mutation

25. Which of these processes does notoccur in the nucleus?

A) DNA replication

B) transcription

C) translation

26. tRNA molecules contain anticodons and carry amino acids to be used in this process:

A) mutation

B) DNA replication

C) transcription

D) translation

27. Exchange of genes between maternal and paternal chromosomes before the first division of meiosis is caused by

A) X-linkage

B) crossing over

C) replication

D) cytokinesis

28. Which is not a subunit of DNA?

A) adenine

B) guanine

C) uracil

D) phosphate

29. A karyotype of an individual with Down syndrome has how many chromosomes?

A) 3

B) 23

C) 46

D) 47

30. If a heterozygous male mates with an albino female, what percentage of albino children would be expected?

A) 0%

B) 25%

C) 50%

D) 75%

E) 100%

31. A father with genotype IAIB and mother with phenotype O could produce children with these blood types:

A) AB only

B) A and B only

C) A, B, and AB only

D) A, B, AB, and O

32. During DNA replication, an old DNA strand with base sequence ATCTGAGTA would serve as a template to form a new complementary strand with the base sequence:

A) TAGACTCAT

B) ATCTGAGTA

C) AUCUCUGUA

33. In peas, tall (T) is dominant to dwarf (t) and, on a separate chromosome set, purple flower (P) is dominant to white flower (p). If Gregor Mendel crosses the genotypes TtPp and ttPp, what is the expected ratio of phenotypes in the offspring?

A) 9/16 tall purple flowered, 3/16 tall white, 3/16 dwarf purple, 1/16 dwarf white

B) 3/8 tall purple flowered, 1/8 tall white, 3/8 dwarf purple, 1/8 dwarf white

C) 1/4 tall purple flowered, 1/4 tall white, 1/4 dwarf purple, 1/4 dwarf white

D) 3/4 tall purple flowered, 1/4 dwarf white

34. Queen Victoria’s son Leopold had hemophilia, which is caused by a sex-linked recessive gene (Xh). Leopold lived to be 31 years old and fathered a normal daughter. What is the genotype of his daughter?

A) X^HX^H

B) X^HX^h

C) X^hX^h

D) X^HY

35. Microevolution by genetic drift is more likely in

A) large populations

B) small populations

36. New alleles appear in a species by

A) genetic drift

B) mutation

C) gene flow

D) natural selection

37. The insect wing, bat wing, and bird wing are

A) analogous structures

B) homologous structures

38. Speciation is most likely when a huge continental population of a snail species

A) undergoes genetic drift

B) is forced north by global warming

C) is divided in two over the eons by the rise of a mountain range

39. Groups of organisms that interbreed in nature and are reproductively isolated from other such groups defines

A) communities

B) hybrids

C) families

D) species

40. Certain species of ants protect, and receive food from, certain species of acacia trees in the tropics. This exemplifies

A) predation

B) mutualism

C) competition

41. The most important cause of species extinction due to humans in recent centuries is

A) disease

B) global warming

C) genetic engineering

D) habitat loss

42. If the decomposers were removed from an ecosystem, the other organisms would eventually die because

A) green plants would run out of necessary minerals in the soil

B) green plants would lose their energy source

C) herbivores must eat decomposers

D) decomposers release oxygen needed by the other organisms

43. The source of energy for an ecosystem is

A) nutrients in the soil

B) water

C) sunlight

D) recycled energy from decomposers

44. Fungi are primarily

A) producers

B) herbivores

C) carnivores

D) decomposers

45. If deer are placed on an island with a constant, renewable food supply and a stable biological

community with predators, the growth curve after several decades would be described as a

A) J-curve [exponential]

B) S-curve [logistic]

46. Professor Hotsun is studying a desert ecosystem containing fig trees, fig-eating rats, rateating snakes, and snake-eating lizards. If the fig trees produce one million kcal of energy, about how much energy would be contained in the population ofrat-eating snakes?

A) 100,000 kcal

B) 50,000 kcal

C) 10,000 kcal

D) 1000 kcal

47. Colorblindness (X^b) is X-linked and recessive. Blondie is normal, and not a carrier, but her husband Dagwood is colorblind. If their daughter Cookie marries a colorblind man, what phenotypes can Cookie expect in her sons?

A) all normal

B) all colorblind

C) 1/2 colorblind, 1/2 normal

48. John has type A blood. John’s father has type O blood. Mary has type B blood. Mary’s mother is type A. The possible blood types of John and Mary’s daughters are

A) AB only

B) A or AB only

C) B or AB only

D) A, B, AB or O

Here is a list of mRNA codons and their amino acids. Use this information to answer #49 and #50:

AAU – asparagine AUC – isoleucine CAA – glutamine CAU – histidine

CGU – arginine CUU – leucine GAA – glutamate GAU – aspartate

GCA – alanine GGC – glycine UGU – cysteine

49. The sequence of amino acids of Arginine-Alanine-Leucine would be coded by this sequence of bases on mRNA :

A) CGUGCACUU

B) GUGCACAA

C) GCACGTGAA

D) GAAGCAGGC

50. A sequence of bases on a DNA strand of GAATTACGT would code for this amino acid sequence:

A) Leucine-Asparagine-Alanine

B) Aspartate-Glutamate-Alanine

C) Glutamine-Cysteine- Histidine

D) Leucine-Glutamate-Histidine

BIOL 103-7380 Final Exam

Question

1. Which of the following includes all the others?

A) atom

B) cell

C) organism

D) population

2. In science, a hypothesis must be

A) testable

B) derived from a theory

C) a known fact

D) able to be proven absolutely true

3. A chlorine atom has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 17 electrons. The atomic number of chlorine is

A) 8

B) 17

C) 35

D) 52

4. If you place the probe of a pH meter in lye or sodium hydroxide (NaOH), it will read pH 14. Sodium hydroxide is

A) an acid

B) neutral

C) a base

5. This polysaccharide forms fibers that are a major component of plant cell walls:

A) glucose

B) starch

C) cellulose

D) glycogen

6. Which of these types of molecules contain nitrogen?

A) polysaccharides

B) proteins

C) steroids

7. Fats contain more energy per gram than carbohydrates or proteins because

A) fat molecules contain a lower percentage of oxygen atoms

B) fat molecules contain a lower percentage of hydrogen atoms

C) fat molecules contain a lower percentage of carbon atoms

D) fat molecules contain a higher percentage of adipose atoms

8. Prokaryotic cells, with no nucleus or membranous organelles, are found in

A) animals

B) bacteria

C) fungi

D) plants

9. The main function of a ribosome is to

A) extract energy from glucose

B) synthesize glucose

C) store food in the form of fat

D) synthesize proteins

10. Mitochondria

A) package proteins for secretion from cell

B) contain chromosomes

C) are sites of oxidation of glucose to generate ATP

D) synthesize proteins

11. The plasma membrane consists of

A) a single layer of phospholipid molecules

B) a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which proteins are embedded

C) several layers of protein and carbohydrate molecules

D) a triple layer of phospholipids and carbohydrates

12. The movement of molecules from a region of low concentration across a membrane to a region of high concentration by use of ATP energy is

A) active transport

B) diffusion

C) passive transport

D) osmosis

13. The oxygen in our atmosphere is produced by

A) greenhouse effect

B) cellular respiration

C) photosynthesis

D) volcanic eruptions

14. Yeast cells break down glucose anaerobically into

A) ethanol and CO2

B) lactic acid and CO2

C) lactic acid and H2O

D) ethanol and H2O

15. Carbon dioxide is released in

A) the light-dependent phase of photosynthesis

B) the Krebs cycle

C) glycolysis

D) the Calvin cycle

16. If the concentration of glucose in the water outside of a cell is lower than the concentration inside

A) water will tend to enter the cell by osmosis

B) water will tend to leave the cell by osmosis

C) glucose will tend to enter the cell by osmosis

D) glucose will tend to leave the cell by osmosis

17. What happens if a red blood cell is placed in a hypertonic solution?

A) the cell will shrink

B) the cell will swell and may burst

C) the cell will remain the same size

18. Which of the following is not a characteristic of enzymes?

A) they are proteins

B) they speed up the rate of chemical reactions

C) they act on specific substances called substrates

D) they are used up in each reaction, thus need to be produced in large quantities

19. Which of these does not have to be present for photosynthesis to occur?

A) water

B) carbon dioxide

C) glucose

D) chlorophyll

20. Each new cell produced by this process will have an identical copy of all chromosomes and genes possessed by the parent cell:

A) mitosis

B) meiosis

21. During the first division of meiosis,

A) chromosomes separate at the centromere

B) homologous chromosomes separate

C) chromosomes become triploid

22. If a normal parent and an albino parent have albino child, the genotypes of the parents are

A) AA x Aa

B) Aa x Aa

C) Aa x aa

D) aa x aa

23. The number of chromosomes in a human egg cell is

A) 4

B) 23

C) 46

D) 48

24. A change in DNA base sequence from CATAC to CACAC would describe

A) translation

B) replication

C) transcription

D) mutation

25. Which of these processes does not occur in the nucleus?

A) DNA replication

B) transcription

C) translation

26. tRNA molecules contain anticodons and carry amino acids to be used in this process:

A) mutation

B) DNA replication

C) transcription

D) translation

27. Exchange of genes between maternal and paternal chromosomes before the first division of meiosis is caused by

A) X-linkage

B) crossing over

C) replication

D) cytokinesis

28. Which is not a subunit of DNA?

A) adenine

B) guanine

C) uracil

D) phosphate

29. A karyotype of an individual with Down syndrome has how many chromosomes?

A) 3

B) 23

C) 46

D) 47

30. If a heterozygous male mates with an albino female, what percentage of albino children would be expected?

A) 0%

B) 25%

C) 50%

D) 75%

E) 100%

31. A father with genotype IAIB and mother with phenotype O could produce children with these blood types:

A) AB only

B) A and B only

C) A, B, and AB only

D) A, B, AB, and O

32. During DNA replication, an old DNA strand with base sequence ATCTGAGTA would serve as a template to form a new complementary strand with the base sequence:

A) TAGACTCAT

B) ATCTGAGTA

C) AUCUCUGUA

33. In peas, tall (T) is dominant to dwarf (t) and, on a separate chromosome set, purple flower (P) is dominant to white flower (p). If Gregor Mendel crosses the genotypes TtPp and ttPp, what is the expected ratio of phenotypes in the offspring?

A) 9/16 tall purple flowered, 3/16 tall white, 3/16 dwarf purple, 1/16 dwarf white

B) 3/8 tall purple flowered, 1/8 tall white, 3/8 dwarf purple, 1/8 dwarf white

C) 1/4 tall purple flowered, 1/4 tall white, 1/4 dwarf purple, 1/4 dwarf white

D) 3/4 tall purple flowered, 1/4 dwarf white

34. Queen Victoria’s son Leopold had hemophilia, which is caused by a sex-linked recessive gene (Xh). Leopold lived to be 31 years old and fathered a normal daughter. What is the genotype of his daughter?

A) X^HX^H

B) X^HX^h

C) X^hX^h

D) X^HY

35. Microevolution by genetic drift is more likely in

A) large populations

B) small populations

36. New alleles appear in a species by

A) genetic drift

B) mutation

C) gene flow

D) natural selection

37. The insect wing, bat wing, and bird wing are

A) analogous structures

B) homologous structures

38. Speciation is most likely when a huge continental population of a snail species

A) undergoes genetic drift

B) is forced north by global warming

C) is divided in two over the eons by the rise of a mountain range

39. Groups of organisms that interbreed in nature and are reproductively isolated from other such groups defines

A) communities

B) hybrids

C) families

D) species

40. Certain species of ants protect, and receive food from, certain species of acacia trees in the tropics. This exemplifies

A) predation

B) mutualism

C) competition

41. The most important cause of species extinction due to humans in recent centuries is

A) disease

B) global warming

C) genetic engineering

D) habitat loss

42. If the decomposers were removed from an ecosystem, the other organisms would eventually die because

A) green plants would run out of necessary minerals in the soil

B) green plants would lose their energy source

C) herbivores must eat decomposers

D) decomposers release oxygen needed by the other organisms

43. The source of energy for an ecosystem is

A) nutrients in the soil

B) water

C) sunlight

D) recycled energy from decomposers

44. Fungi are primarily

A) producers

B) herbivores

C) carnivores

D) decomposers

45. If deer are placed on an island with a constant, renewable food supply and a stable biological

community with predators, the growth curve after several decades would be described as a

A) J-curve [exponential]

B) S-curve [logistic]

46. Professor Hotsun is studying a desert ecosystem containing fig trees, fig-eating rats, rateating snakes, and snake-eating lizards. If the fig trees produce one million kcal of energy, about how much energy would be contained in the population ofrat-eating snakes?

A) 100,000 kcal

B) 50,000 kcal

C) 10,000 kcal

D) 1000 kcal

47. Colorblindness (X^b) is X-linked and recessive. Blondie is normal, and not a carrier, but her husband Dagwood is colorblind. If their daughter Cookie marries a colorblind man, what phenotypes can Cookie expect in her sons?

A) all normal

B) all colorblind

C) 1/2 colorblind, 1/2 normal

48. John has type B blood. John’s father has type O blood. Mary has type A blood. Mary’s mother is type B. The possible blood types of John and Mary’s daughters are

A) AB only

B) A or AB only

C) B or AB only

D) A, B, AB or O

Here is a list of mRNA codons and their amino acids. Use this information to answer #49 and #50:

AAU – asparagine AUC – isoleucine CAA – glutamine CAU – histidine

CGU – arginine CUU – leucine GAA – glutamate GAU – aspartate

GCA – alanine GGC – glycine UGU – cysteine

49. The sequence of amino acids of Arginine-Alanine-Leucine would be coded by this sequence of bases on mRNA :

A) CGUGCACUU

B) GUGCACAA

C) GCACGTGAA

D) GAAGCAGGC

50. A sequence of bases on a DNA strand of GAATTACGT would code for this amino acid sequence:

A) Leucine-Asparagine-Alanine

B) Aspartate-Glutamate-Alanine

C) Glutamine-Cysteine- Histidine

D) Leucine-Glutamate-Histidine

 

 

Attention deficit disorder (ADD) is a syndrome in which a person has difficulty focusing sustained attention on a task for a significant amount of time. In some cases this is accompanied by hyperactivity as well. It is currently being diagnosed at an all-time high. Between 1989 and 1996, youth visits for ADD increased 90%, from 1.9% of total physician visits to 3.6%.

 

Now, a psychiatrist named Dr. Edward Hallowell is making a new distinction. He has described a similar set of characteristics in a large number of patients that he terms Attention Deficit Trait (ADT). It looks a lot like ADD in its day-to-day manifestation, but unlike ADD, ADT symptoms lessen when the sufferer goes on vacation or into a decreased sensory input setting for an extended time period (on the order of days or weeks). In such a long-term placid situation, the ADD sufferer’s problems continue unabated.

 

Imagine that you have the general set of symptoms described above. But which of the two syndromes are causing your symptoms: the disorder (ADD) or the trait (ADT)? Approach your problem using scientific methodology—developing a question, a hypothesis, an experiment, and a control for the experiment.

 

The initial question and the experiment that will be performed on you are provided. Your job is to state the hypothesis and to design the most important and most basic control for this experiment.

 

 

Your Question: What’s my problem? Is it ADD or ADT?

 

1.      Your Hypothesis: State your hypothesis based directly on the above question.

 

Your Experiment: Keeping your same diet, sleep habits, and basic activity level, you will be sent on a two-week vacation to the Bahama Islands. You will be given only a beach to walk on and your favorite friend to talk to, following which you will be asked to read and memorize 10 sequential definitions from a standard dictionary in 30 minutes.

 

2.      Your Control for this Experiment: You get a numerical result for the number of definitions you memorized. What does that number mean? Nothing—unless you have a control for your experiment. What is the most obvious control for this experiment?

 

Major Hint: The study guide for Quiz 1 indicates where this topic is covered in your text. The two figures in that section give you valuable examples. Remember, the initial question and experiment are provided here. Be careful to provide what the assignment is asking for.

 

Your assignment:

 

1)      Write out a testable hypothesis in a brief sentence. Derive it from the question asked above. (Be certain that the experiment addresses it!)

2)      In a second sentence, describe a basic, critical control situation (additional experiment?) that will give validity to the experiment described above.

Number your sentences with “1” and “2” and do not use paragraph form. The sentences must not be submitted as an attached document, but entered into the text box provided.

Question Biol 113 Fall 2015
Assignment:
Midterm-1-2015F
1. The three major domains of life are
archaea, bacteria, and eukaryotes.
plants, animals, and protists.
eukaryotes, prokaryotes, and animals.
eukaryotes, prokaryotes, and fungi.
bacteria, fungi, and eukaryotes.
2. Organic molecules
always contain hydrogen.
are always food molecules.
are found only in organisms, hence their name.
always contain carbon.
always contain carbon and hydrogen.
3. Which of the following structures are NOT found in the cytoplasm?
lysosome
chromosomes
nucleus
mitochondria
chloroplast
4. The nucleolus
contains DNA and is found in the cytoplasm.
contains RNA and is found in the nucleus.
contains DNA and is found in the nucleus.
contains ribosome subunits and is found in the cytoplasm.
contains RNA and is found in the cytoplasm.
5. Some students consume large amounts of coffee and so-called energy drinks to help them stay alert when studying. You notice that many who engage in this practice seem to do poorly on exams. Suppose you want to investigate the relationship between caffeine consumption and exam performance. Which of the following statements would be an appropriate hypothesis?
Students who consume large amounts of caffeine while studying will have lower exam scores than those who consume less caffeine.
Many students consume large amounts of caffeine while studying.
Caffeine increases alertness but also increases anxiety.
One should avoid consuming too much caffeine while studying.
Too much caffeine is harmful to your health.
6. When a substance moves from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration while using energy, the process is termed
pinocytosis.
facilitated diffusion.
active transport.
osmosis.
diffusion.
7. Which of the following is a prokaryotic cell?
plant cell
bacterium
liver cell
muscle cell
paramecium
8. Both plant and animal cells have mitochondria because they both
have a large central vacuole.
need ATP for energy.
have lysosomal hydrolytic enzymes.
carry on photosynthesis.
have endoplasmic reticulum.
9. Two molecules of glucose combine to form a disaccharide molecule during a(n) ________ reaction.
hydrolysis
ionic bond
hydrogen bond
inert
dehydration
10. Which of the following types of lipid is the most abundant constituent of cell membranes?
phospholipid
fat
neutral fat
triglyceride
cholesterol

phospholipid
11. Compared with a eukaryotic cell, a prokaryotic cell
has no method of movement.
lacks organelles beyond ribosomes.
is larger.
does not require energy.
is not living.
12. The backbone of a nucleic acid strand is composed of
glycerol.
alternating pentose sugars and phosphate groups.
“R” groups.
nitrogenous bases.
alternating adenines and thymines.
13. Which nutrient source is the easiest one for humans to breakdown and form ATP?
glucose
chitin
cellulose
protein
phospholipids
14. Ribosomes are composed of
only protein.
RNA and protein.
DNA and protein.
DNA and RNA.
only DNA.
15. DNA codes for the sequence of amino acids in the primary structure of a protein, but not for sugars or lipids. This is because
sugars and lipids are ever present in the living environment and are not used in living structures.
sugars and lipids code for their own replication.
other hereditary molecules code for sugars and lipids.
only proteins are involved in living metabolic reactions.
proteins are the main structural and functional components of cells.
16. The final shape of a protein is very important to its function. When proteins undergo an irreversible change in shape called ________________ they ________________ perform their usual functions.
dehydration reaction/cannot
naturation/can
naturation/cannot
denaturation/can
denaturation/cannot
17. Which answer choice lists the steps of the scientific method in the correct order?
observation, experiment, hypothesis, conclusion, scientific theory
conclusion, hypothesis, observation, experiment, scientific theory
scientific theory, conclusion, hypothesis, experiment, observation
hypothesis, observation, experiment, conclusion, scientific theory
observation, hypothesis, experiment, conclusion, scientific theory
18. Which of these is present in plant, but not animal, cells?
cell membrane
centrioles
Golgi apparatus
nucleus
chloroplasts
19. Hemoglobin is a protein composed of two pairs of polypeptide chains. What is the highest level of protein structure represented in hemoglobin?
molecular
tertiary
quaternary
secondary
primary
20. Mitochondria are bounded by a double membrane. The inner filled space is called the matrix which contains ______________ that break down carbohydrate products, releasing _______________ to be used for ATP production.
enzymes/energy
DNA/energy
RNA/energy
ribosomes/carbon dioxide
21. Macrophages, a type of white blood cells, are able to remove bacteria from our bloodstream and tissues by
osmosis.
passive transport.
phagocytosis.
facilitated diffusion.
pinocytosis.
22. The ____ will store pigments and toxins in plant cells.
mitochondria
chloroplast
lysosomes
vacuole
peroxisomes
23. All carbohydrate molecules
are organic acids.
are composed of atoms of C, H, and the functional group -OH.
contain nitrogen and phosphate.
contain amino acids.
are composed of atoms of C, H, O, and N.
24. When a lysosome fuses with a vacuole,
protein synthesis begins.
they both return to the Golgi apparatus.
they both disappear.
its contents are digested.
division begins.
25. If a new anti-cancer drug is found effective in initial tests with mice, what do researchers conclude?
The drug is effective in the mouse model; it must still be tested in humans.
The effect of the drug on mice has no bearing on the effect of the drug on humans.
The mice have provided a positive control in this experiment that proves the drug is effective in humans.
If the drug was effective in a small proportion of mice, it will be effective in a small proportion of humans.
If the drug was effective in a large number of mice, it will therefore be effective in humans.
26. Certain individuals with a Y chromosome develop into females because testosterone is not able to induce the formation of male sexual characteristics. This is most likely due to a defect in
the receptor
the Y chromosome
the transduction pathway
the signaling molecule
the target protein
27. Which statement concerning reproduction is false?
The offspring of asexual organisms have the same genes as the single parent.
Hereditary information is passed on to the next generation.
The offspring of sexual organisms have roughly one half of the genes from each parent.
Hereditary information is in the form of genes.
The offspring of multicellular organisms tend to be identical to the parent.
28. Carrier molecules are required for
facilitated diffusion.
osmosis.
both facilitated diffusion AND active transport.
active transport.
both osmosis AND diffusion.
29. If a cell lacked ribosomes, it would NOT be able to
form a spindle apparatus.
synthesize proteins.
form a Golgi vesicle.
hydrolyze fat.
respire.
30. Which of these combinations would be found in a nucleotide?
DNA-RNA-nucleus
sugar-protein-fat
base-sugar-phosphate
adenine-thymine-uracil
base-acid-salt
31. Which function does the lipid bilayer component of the plasma membrane NOT provide for the cell?
provides a fluid and flexible boundary that insulates the interior from the variations in humidity, food, and other external conditions
provides a matrix for the placement of proteins that regulate the exchange of molecules between the inside and outside of the cell
controls the exchange of molecules between one cell and adjacent cells or the environment
defines a permeable boundary between the organized interior and the chaotic external environment
provides an impermeable, self-sealing membrane that keeps all internal living processes sealed inside
32. You are conducting an experiment to determine what concentration of disinfectant is most effective in killing bacteria. In this example, the concentration of disinfectant would represent the
response variable.
hypothesis.
control.
data.
experimental variable.
33. Enzymes are organic compounds classified as
carbohydrates.
proteins.
nucleic acids.
lipids.
steroids.
34. According to cell theory
new cells arise only from preexisting cells.
a multicellular organism is composed of many cells.
the smallest unit of life is a nucleus.
all organisms are composed of tissues.
animals but not plants are composed of cells.
35. A researcher samples the waters of the boiling hot springs in Yellowstone National Park. Under the microscope, she observes what appear to be living cells in the water. If these indeed are living cells, what type of cell would they most likely be?
eukaryotic, animal
eukaryotic, fungi
eukaryotic, plant
prokaryotic, bacteria
prokaryotic, archaea
36. Which statement is false regarding science?
Correct scientific conclusions are permanent and never subject to change or refinement.
Science helps us to understand the natural world.
Information is gained by observing and testing.
Information is gathered by scientific methods.
Science strives to be objective rather than subjective.
37. Which of the following factors could cause the cell membrane to become less permeable?
If the channel proteins were to denature and become inactive.
If the size of the protein channel was to increase.
If the molecules trying to enter the cell were decreased in size.
If the hydrophilic head of the phospholipids were to become hydrophobic while the hydrophobic tails become hydrophilic.
All of these choices would cause the cell membrane to become less permeable.
38. What type of bond will connect the amino acids in a protein?
triple covalent
polar covalent
ionic
double covalent
peptide
39. Which sequence correctly lists the different levels of biological organization, from the smallest and simplest to the largest and most complex?
cells-tissues-organs-organ systems-organisms
tissues-cells-organs-organ systems-organism
cells-organs-tissues-organ systems-organism
tissues-organs-organ systems-organisms-cells
cells-tissues-organ systems-organs-organism
40. ____ is a polysaccharide that is found in plant cell walls and accounts for their strength.
Starch
Cellulose
Glycogen
Chitin
Cholesterol
41. The primary function of carbohydrates is
to transport molecules across cell membranes.
encoding the hereditary information.
to speed chemical reactions in cells.
quick fuel and short-term energy storage.
structural reinforcement of plant and fungal cell walls.
42. According to the fluid-mosaic model of membrane structure,
proteins float inside or within the phospholipid bilayer.
glycolipids form a mosaic pattern inside the cell.
only lipids are found in the membrane.
cholesterol is the main constituent of the membrane.
proteins make up the bulk of the membrane.
43. During photosynthesis, solar energy is converted to chemical energy by the chloroplasts. The process is represented by:
carbohydrate + carbon dioxide = oxygen + water + energy
carbohydrate + oxygen = carbon dioxide + water + energy
solar energy + carbon dioxide + water = carbohydrate + oxygen
solar energy + oxygen + water = carbohydrate + oxygen
solar energy = carbohydrate + oxygen
44. If a cell lacks ATP, which of the following processes would cease to operate immediately?
osmosis
diffusion
facilitated diffusion
tonicity
sodium/potassium pump
45. Which cellular structure is responsible for packaging materials with the cell?
Golgi apparatus
mitochondria
lysosomes
ribosomes
chloroplasts
46. Which of the following molecules add stiffness and strength to the plasma membrane?
glycoproteins
enzymatic proteins
phosphate groups
phospholipids
cholesterol
47. Which of the following refers to materials only leaving the cell?
exocytosis
phagocytosis
pinocytosis
diffusion
endocytosis
48. Which nuclear structure(s) contain(s) the hereditary material?
nucleoplasm
chromatin
chloroplasts
nuclear envelope
mitochondria
49. The number of mitochondria in a cell would be a general indicator of the extent of
osmosis.
facilitated transport.
both osmosis and diffusion.
active transport.
diffusion.
50. The bones in a bird are hollow, reducing its weight for flight. This is an example of which characteristic of life?
Living things are homeostatic.
Living things reproduce.
Living things acquire materials and energy from the environment.
Living things grow and develop.
Living things are adapted.

nit VIII Essay

White Paper

You are an industrial hygienist for a major pharmaceutical company. The CEO has contacted you regarding a new product line that will be produced in your facility. The new product involves the handling and use of an engineered nanomaterial. To date, your company’s health and safety program has not had to address any safety concerns associated with handling and use of these materials. Using the Centers for Disease Control document in the Unit VIII Required Reading section as your authoritative source, prepare a three- to five-page “white paper” that provides an overview of engineered materials and includes a discussion of the following:

•   background and industry overview of engineered nanomaterials,
•   exposure control strategies,
•   nanotechnology processes and engineering controls,
•   hazard control evaluations,
•   health hazards associated with exposures, and
•   conclusions and recommendations.

  As you prepare your paper, keep in mind that this should be a high-level overview that is understandable to all employees in the organization: from upper management to production workers. All sources used, including your textbook, should be cited and referenced properly using APA format.

1. What is the substance required to cleave the vector DNA during recombinant DNA technology?

DNA ligase

vectors

plasmids

DNA helicase

restriction enzymes

2. Anatomical features that are fully developed and functional in one group of organisms but reduced and functionless in a similar group are termed

homologous.

sympatric.

analogous.

vestigial.

polygenic.

3. All living organisms share characteristics such as: DNA, the molecule that passes information between generations, metabolic processes like glycolysis and the ability to utilize specific energy sources. This is thought to be due to

Biological evolution

The presents of transitional forms

Limited environmental stimuli

Prezygotic isolation

Postzygotic isolation

4. NADPH and ATP are used in the

cyclic electron pathway.

citric acid cycle.

Calvin cycle reactions.

light reactions.

noncyclic electron pathway.

5. Eukaryotic chromosomes are composed of

protein.

RNA.

histones.

DNA.

chromatin.

6. Mendel carried out most of his research with

guinea pigs.

livestock.

fruit flies.

pea plants.

bacteria.

7. During what stage of meiosis do sister chromatids separate from each other?

metaphase II

metaphase I

prophase

anaphase II

anaphase I

8. Chemical reactions that require the input of energy are

kinetic reactions.

exergonic reactions.

catabolic reactions.

endergonic reactions.

coupled reactions.

9. Inbreeding within a population is an example of

natural selection.

gene flow.

mutations.

genetic drift.

nonrandom mating.

10. Which of the following crosses will yield four phenotypes in a ratio of 9:3:3:1?

RrYy x RrYy

RrYy x rryy

RRYY x RRYY

RRYY x rryy

rryy x rryy

11. During crossing-over,

chromatids exchange segments of genetic material.

chromosomes switch poles.

chromosomes become chromatin.

mitosis becomes meiosis.

chromatin becomes chromosomes.

12. Which fossil evidence is considered an intermediate between reptiles and birds?

Eusthenopteron

Seymouria

synapsids

therapods

Archaeopteryx

13. Which is NOT true according to Mendel’s law of segregation?

Fertilization restores the presence of two factors.

One factor must be dominant and one factor recessive in each individual.

Factors separate from each other during gamete formation.

Each individual contains two factors for each trait.

Each gamete contains one copy of each factor.

14. The _____ indicates the gene combination of an individual.

phenotype

homozygous

dominance

genotype

loci

15. In humans, the diploid number of chromosomes is

20.

46.

92.

16.

16. Which of the following crosses will yield only homozygous recessive offspring?

RrYy x rryy

RRYY x RRYY

rryy x rryy

RRYY x rryy

RrYy x RrYy

17. Alternative forms of a gene that influence the same trait and are found at the same location in homologous chromosomes are called

incomplete dominance.

alleles.

codominant.

phenotypes.

genotypes.

18. Which of the following is NOT correct concerning the law of independent assortment?

It follows the observation that all maternal chromosomes end up in the egg.

It is based upon the process of meiosis.

It was the second law of heredity established by Mendel.

Each pair of factors separates independently.

All possible combinations of factors can occur in the gametes.

19. Which evidence for evolution uses impressions of plants and animals pressed into sedimentary rock?

comparative anatomy

fossil record

comparative embryology

comparative biochemistry

biogeography

20. What lines up at the metaphase plate during metaphase II of meiosis and metaphase of mitosis?

each chromosome composed of two sister chromatids for meiosis, each chromosome composed of one sister chromatid for mitosis

each chromosome composed of two sister chromatids for meiosis, homologous chromosomes for mitosis

homologous chromosomes for meiosis, each chromosome composed of two sister chromatids for mitosis

each chromosome composed of two sister chromatids at both

homologous chromosomes at both

21. Mass extinctions

are the result of humans exploiting wildlife and using pesticides.

require life to evolve again from protocells.

occurred in cycles when organisms fail to evolve.

have occurred about 4 or 5 times in fossil record, due in some cases to catastrophic changes.

are the result of humans damaging the natural environment.

22. The ____ is the total number of alleles of all the gene loci in all the members of a population.

genetic drift

gene flow

adaptive radiation

community

gene pool

23. Africa, Asia, South America, and Antarctica share some patterns of primitive (fossil) plants and early reptiles, but do not have similar mammal populations. This therefore

suggests that the earlier plants and reptiles evolved while continents were joined but mammals radiated into diverse groups after separation.

is an unsolved puzzle probably due to the random nature of biological evolution.

suggests that the mammals evolved earlier while continents were joined but plants and reptiles radiated into diverse groups after separation.

suggests that a pattern of land bridges existed at different times in geological history.

casts serious doubts upon the theory of continental drift and fused land masses.

24. Which molecules are the reactants or substrates for aerobic respiration?

lactate and oxygen

glucose and carbon dioxide

oxygen and glucose

glucose and water

carbon dioxide and water

25. When does apoptosis occur?

during injury repair

during mitosis

during meiosis

during interphase

during development

26. A cross that involves two traits is called a ______ cross.

monohybrid

test

dihybrid

homozygous

Punnett

27. What are the products of photosynthesis?

carbon dioxide and carbohydrate

water and oxygen

oxygen and carbohydrate

water and carbon dioxide

carbohydrate and water

28. The organisms examined by Darwin on the Galapagos Islands that were most important in his development of the theory of natural selection were

monkeys and armadillos.

fish.

rabbits and hares.

plants.

finches.

29. In humans, widow’s peak (W) is dominant over straight hairline (w). If a heterozygous male marries a female with a straight hairline, what percent of their children can be expected to have widow’s peak?

can’t be determined

0%

50%

100%

25%

30. Synapsis occurs during what stage of meiosis?

anaphase I

metaphase II

prophase I

anaphase II

telophase II

31. Where does glycolysis take place within the cell?

endoplasmic reticulum

cytoplasm

mitochondrial matrix

nucleus

mitochondrial membrane

32. The raw material for evolutionary change is

natural selection.

mutation.

gene flow.

nonrandom reproduction.

genetic drift.

33. In which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the center of the cell?

telophase.

metaphase.

interphase.

anaphase.

prophase.

34. Wherever an evolutionary tree branches, there is assumed to be

a common ancestor.

a suddenly new species.

an embryo only.

always a living member of that group.

no living member of that group.

35. Where within the cell is ATP built up?

cytoplasm

Golgi body

mitochondria

endoplasmic reticulum

nucleus

36. During what stage of mitosis does the nuclear envelope disappear and the chromosomes become distinct?

interphase

telophase

anaphase

prophase

metaphase

37. Which of the following conditions does NOT contribute to evolution?

unchanging environmental conditions

natural selection

gene flow

genetic drift

mutations

38. The treatment of a disorder by inserting genetic material into an organism is called

karyotyping.

amniocentesis.

chorionic villi sampling.

genetic profiling.

gene therapy.

39. Enzymes are specific. This means that they

have a preferred pH.

have a particular substrate.

are only in certain cells.

have a preferred temperature.

require ATP and cofactors in order to work properly.

40. Which of the following is true about natural selection?

It acts on genotypes rather than phenotypes.

It always selects for forms that are a mutated variation.

It assures the survival of each fit individual.

On average, it favors the survival of young with adaptive characteristics.

It always selects for more complex forms.

41. When creating transgenic bacteria, plants, and animals

any cell may be used as long as is does not have a cell wall.

only eggs may be used for animals while and cell may be used for plants and bacteria.

only eggs may be used for plants and animals while any cell may be used for bacteria.

only eggs may be used to create any transgenic organism.

transgenic bacteria are created first and then used to create transgenic plants and animals.

42. When only a few individuals survive unfavorable times, thereby losing the majority of genotypes in the next generation, it is called

natural selection.

a founder effect.

vestigial structures.

industrial melanism.

a bottleneck effect.

43. According to the evolutionary theory, which statement is NOT true?

Evolution explains the diversity of life.

Diversity occurs because various living things are adapted to different ways of life.

All living things are NOT descended from a common ancestor.

Evolution explains the unity of life.

All living things share the same fundamental characteristics.

44. In humans, brown eyes (B) is a simple dominant trait over blue eyes (b). A brown-eyed woman whose child is blue-eyed would have the genotype

BbBb.

BBB.

Bb.

BB.

bb.

45. What is the term used to describe the accumulation of small changes in the gene pool of a species over time?

directional selection

microevolution

founder effect

mutation rate

genetic drift

46. Which of the following is not a use of DNA fingerprinting?

Paternity tests

Identifying Superbowl footballs

Determining a predisposition to cancer

All of the above are uses of DNA fingerprinting

Forensic analysis

47. What are the two sets of reactions for photosynthesis?

Calvin cycle reactions, citric acid cycle

light reactions, glycolysis

light reactions, Calvin cycle reactions

glycolysis, citric acid cycle

electron transport chain, light reactions

48. Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) that are used as crop plants to feed humans are able to express new traits because

they have been injected with these new molecules and there is no natural method for them to be degraded in the organism.

they grow bacteria on the surface of leaves or roots that produce these molecules.

their normally occurring molecules have been modified to serve different functions.

they now contain genes from another organism that code for these molecules.

they are hybrid plants that contain new alleles.

49. ________ uses an electrical field to separate DNA fragments based upon their length.

DNA digestion

Transgenics

Gel electrophoresis

DNA cloning

Polymerase chain reaction

50. Transgenic crop plants have been created that do all of the following except

are resistant to insect damage.

produce human hormones or antibodies.

grow two kinds of crops, like the pomato which produces both tomatoes and potatoes.

are resistant to herbicides.

transgenic plants have been produced that can do all of the things listed.

Project description
-An essay of 2500 words on climate change affecting the hospitality industry.
-The writer must summarise the main points of the topic in general, show insight in the field (i.e. what is it about? how much impact will it have?), and synthesise others thoughts (i.e. does researcher Xs opinions differ from researcher Ys opinion? How is this important?).
Relate ideas to the hospitality industry.
-Make a critical assessment of how climate change relates to the hospitality industry.
-In the introduction the writer must present the trend and explain why it is relevant to the hospitality industry. The writer should also mention in one or two sentences what the following sections of the paper will discuss.
-The main body of the essay should start with definitions. Do not use the words ‘Main Body’ as your heading, rather choose something more specific. Use numbered headings and sub-headings to separate different sections.
Answer the basic questions: why, what, how, when and where.
Why is this trend important?
What are the drivers of this trend that justify these particular points you discuss?
Ensure you have clearly set out evidence of how this trend is affecting the hospitality industry.
Include at least one important case study to demonstrate when and where this trend is most pronounced, and present what this case study found.
The majority of the work should be related to the work of others from a variety of sources, including books and research papers. Explore in depth and justify how this impacts the industry.
———-
Added on 13.01.2016 08:35
Write both advantage and disadvantage
Observe about the whole topic
Talk about overall, not only one or few hotels
Put few figures into the essay, numbers be added to the figures and also where the sources came from.

Study Guide: Quiz 2

 

Quiz Preparation Tasks:

Your Answers and Notes

4

Complexity II: Molecular Efficiency and Variety

 

4.3

Carbohydrates: Structure and Function

 

 

List the 4 classes of biomolecules and the class of monomers used as building blocks in the polymers of each class.

 

 

What 3 kinds of atoms does a carbohydrate contain?

 

 

Sugars

 

 

What 2 characteristics of sugars make them members of the class of “carbohydrates” ?

 

 

Five of the six carbon atoms in a ____________ molecule are typically found bonded together with an oxygen atom in a ring structure.

 

 

Name 2 general classes or kinds of sugar molecules.

 

 

Carbohydrate Polymers

 

 

What is the function of glycogen?

 

4.4

Lipids: Structure and Function

 

 

Lipids are a class of molecules defined by their ____________ in water.

 

 

Other than for cooking French fries, list 3 biological functions of lipid molecules of various sorts.

 

 

The Wonderfully Functional Fat Molecule

 

 

The structure of a fat molecule (a polymer) consists of what 3 monomers covalently bonded to a glycerol molecule?

 

 

Unsaturated fats have a higher number of ____________ ____________ between carbon atoms in their structures.

 

 

Animal fats tend to be ____________ with hydrogen atoms.

 

 

The Amazing Phospholipid

 

 

In a phospholipid, what are the 3 (monomeric) parts that are attached to the glycerol molecule?

 

 

A phospholipid is a large polymeric molecule that is ____________ over most of its structure but very ____________ at one end.

 

 

What is the functional role of phospholipids in cells?

 

 

Mighty Testosterone

 

 

The structure of testosterone: four rings of ____________ atoms bonded together with ____________ atoms around the edges.

 

 

List 4 functional roles of the hormone testosterone in the human male.

 

4.5

Proteins: Structure and Function

 

 

A Glorious Structure Supports Myriads of Functions

 

 

What 4 structural groups surround the central carbon atom of an amino acid?

 

 

Polymers of amino acids that are linked in linear chains and that contain atoms of nitrogen are called ____________.

 

 

Crossing Biomolecular Class Lines

 

 

Glycoproteins are molecules that are partially simple ____________ and partially ____________.

 

4.7

Nucleic Acids: Structure and Function

 

 

Nucleotides: The Monomers

 

 

A nucleotide monomer could best be described as a five-carbon ____________ that is bonded to a nitrogen-containing ____________ and to either one, two or three ____________ groups.

 

 

The Polymers: DNA and RNA

 

 

List the 4 kinds of nitrogen-containing bases found in DNA molecules.

 

 

Which base is used in RNA but not DNA?

 

 

State the function of the sequence of bases in a long, polymeric DNA molecule.

 

 

Structurally, the monomers of RNA contain the sugar ____________ and the nitrogenous bases ____________, ____________, ____________, and ____________.

 

 

What polymer enables the cell’s information to flow from DNA out into the cell cytoplasm in a more expressible form?

 

 

 

 

5

Complexity III: The Glory of the Cell

 

5.1

What Is a Cell?

 

 

Why is it impossible to write a brief dictionary definition of life?

 

 

Definition

 

 

Criticize the text’s definition of a cell. What is a major difficulty with this definition?

 

 

Cell Theory

 

 

List the 3 parts or elements of cell theory.

 

 

Generalizations: At Once Brilliant and Naïve

 

 

How do slime molds violate the first element of cell theory?

 

 

Cells are small because the ____________ rate of molecules will not support life over greater distances.

 

5.2

Living Cells Are Complex

 

 

What structure do prokaryotic cells always lack?

 

 

A major portion of prokaryotic cells go by the common name ____________.

 

 

Generally speaking, prokaryotic cells are ____________ and ____________ than eukaryotic cells.

 

 

Bacteria are typically very small, yet even the largest bacterium is still only a prokaryote. Why?

 

 

Prokaryotic Intricacies

 

 

Describe 2 possible arrangements for membranes and wall in the boundary around a prokaryotic cell.

 

 

List 2 possible functions of the second outer membrane in some prokaryotic cells.

 

 

A prokaryotic cell is protected against osmotic swelling and rupture by its ____________.

 

 

Some bacteria always live in surroundings with the same concentration of dissolved substances as in their own cytoplasm. What structure do these bacteria not need?

 

 

List the names and roles of 5 specific classes of proteins found bound within a prokaryotic cell membrane.

 

 

List 2 broad classes of biomolecules found within the nucleoid of a prokaryotic organism.

 

 

Describe a microcompartment and state where they are found.

 

 

____________ house enzymes that trap carbon dioxide and bind it to larger substrate molecules.

 

 

Prokaryotic Organization

 

 

In order for the unwanted bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes to adhere to your throat cells, attachment to your cells must be made. This is done using new proteins called ____________ and new cell structures called ____________.

 

 

Why is it difficult for human macrophages to detect and destroy strep cells?

 

 

The streptococcal cell structure that does the most direct damage to the human body is ____________ protein.

 

 

Eukaryotic Intricacies

 

 

An important function of the eukaryotic cell ____________ is to maintain the high level of orderliness found within the cell.

 

 

The cell’s DNA, plus its scaffolding, are referred to as ____________. It contains the cell’s archive of ____________.

 

 

What do you call discrete, visible lengths of DNA sequence found in human cell nuclei?

 

 

What important activity occurs in the cell’s nucleolus?

 

 

Eukaryotic cells heavily responsible for making proteins have their ribosomes arranged within a network of channels known as the ____________ ____________.

 

 

What cell organelles have ribosomes in their membranes? (Ribosomes do protein synthesis.)

 

 

What is the role of the Golgi complex within the cell cytoplasm?

 

 

Which cell organelle would be useful in a cell that takes in and destroys viruses?

 

 

Describe how a lysosome is formed.

 

 

____________ are little molecular machines (eukaryotic cell structures) that move vesicles and organelles throughout the cytoplasm of the cell.

 

 

____________ and ____________ are structures that walk along microtubules in the eukaryotic cell, carrying vesicles from place to place.

 

 

A eukaryotic cell that needs to have a lot of ATP energy would have a lot of what kind of organelle?

 

 

What is the functional role of chloroplasts within plant cells?

 

 

In a eukaryotic cell, the reactions of ____________ convert energy into the form of ATP within a structure called the ____________.

 

 

Eukaryotic Organization

 

 

Ribosomes in an acinar cell generate the amino acid sequence of the digestive enzyme ____________.

 

 

Within an acinar cell, the enzyme amylase reaches its final form within the ____________.

 

 

When the enzyme amylase from the pancreas is finally ready for use, where, within the cells, is it stored?

 

 

What stimulates the release of the enzyme amylase into the pancreatic duct so that it can break down starches?

 

 

The small intestine signals the ____________ cell that food (starch) is present; the signal is a ____________ that binds to ____________ on the cell.

 

 

What is the immediate effect of the binding of acetylcholine to an acinar cell surface receptor protein?