Day: April 27, 2018

Question

1 of 25

Which of the following describes structures from the conduction zone?

Pharynx, alveolar sacs, alveoli, trachea

Bronchus, nasal cavity, trachea, pharynx

Nasal cavity, respiratory membrane, alveoli, bronchus

Trachea, bronchus, bronchioles, alveoli

Pharynx, larynx, bronchus, alveoli

Question 2 of 25What structure in the nasal cavity serves to increase the surface area of the mucosa exposed to air?

Palate

Conchae

Nasal septum

Nares

Paranasal sinuses

Question 3 of 25 What is internal respiration?

The intake of atmospheric air into the body

Gas exchange between the atmospheric air and the blood

Gas exchange between the lungs and the body tissues

Gas exchange between the blood and the tissue cells

Intake of oxygen and release of carbon dioxide from tissue cells

Question 4 of 25What is the role of the diaphragm in breathing?

When the diaphragm contracts, the thoracic cavity decreases in size and inspiration occurs.

When the diaphragm contracts, the thoracic cavity increases in size and expiration occurs.

When the diaphragm contracts, the thoracic cavity decreases in size and expiration occurs.

When the diaphragm contracts, the thoracic cavity decreases in size and external respiration occurs.

When the diaphragm contracts, the thoracic cavity increases in size and inspiration occurs.

Question 5 of 25What determines the flow of gases across the respiratory membrane?

Gases are dissolved in the plasma and flow through the respiratory membrane gaps.

Gases flow from lower to higher concentration using simple diffusion.

Gases flow from a higher to lower concentration using simple diffusion.

Gases attach to a hemoglobin molecule and then travel across the membrane.

Gases are dissolved in the plasma and cross using facilitated diffusion.

Question 6 of 25 Which of the following describes the movement of carbon dioxide?

Carbon dioxide moves from alveolar air into pulmonary capillaries.

Carbon dioxide moves from pulmonary capillaries into alveolar air.

Carbon dioxide moves from blood to tissue cells.

Carbon dioxide binds to hemoglobin and is removed through the kidneys.

Carbon dioxide moves from blood to oxyhemoglobin.

Question 7 of 25What is the significant function of the residual volume?

It expands the lung volume.

It increases the surfactant of the alveoli.

It allows gas exchange to continue even between breaths.

It represents the total lung capacity of a body.

It keeps the oxygen levels as low as possible.

Question 8 of 25 What area(s) of the brain are involved in the control of breathing?

Medulla only

Cerebellum only

Pons only

Medulla and the cerebellum

Medulla and the pons

Question 9 of 25 What is an important chemical stimulus that affects breathing rate?

Increased calcium levels

Increased anxiety

Increased carbon dioxide levels

Increased potassium levels

Increased mucous production in the bronchus

Question 10 of 25What is the proposed reason for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?

Decreased oxygen flow across the respiratory membrane

Impaired neural control of respiration

Increased build-up of carbon dioxide

Impaired respiratory membranes

Decreased alveolar elasticity

Question 11 of 25Which of the following is associated with COPD?

Lack of mucous production resulting in excessive coughing

Cessation of breathing due to anxiety

Hyperventilation resulting in metabolic alkalosis

A genetic disorder with excessive mucous production

Respiratory failure and respiratory acidosis

Question 12 of 25In which major digestive organ does most food absorption occur?

Stomach

Small intestine

Large intestine

Liver

Colon

Question 13 of 25 What layer of the alimentary canal contains nerve fibers and lymphatic tissue?

Mucosa

Submucosa

Muscularis externa

Serosa

Visceral peritoneum

 

Question 14 of 25 What is the process of chewing called?

Deglutition

Absorption

Segmentation

Defecation

Mastication

Question 15 of 25 The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by which of the following structures?

Plicae circularis and intestinal villi

Brunner’s glands

Digestive enzymes

Rugae

Gastric pits

Question 16 of 25 Which of the following describes permanent teeth?

There are 32 permanent teeth, and the wisdom teeth are the last to emerge

There are 27 permanent teeth, and the first molars are usually the last to emerge

The number of permanent teeth is always equal to the number of primary teeth.

The number of upper permanent teeth is not equal to the number of lower permanent teeth.

The number of permanent teeth varies widely from person to person.

Question 17 of 25Which of the following describes saliva?

It is composed of water only.

It contains enzymes that begin the breakdown of proteins.

It is produced by the palatine tonsils.

It serves to warm food before it is swallowed.

It dissolves food chemicals so they can be tasted.

Question 18 of 25Hydrochloric acid is secreted by which of the secretory cells of the stomach?

Chief cells

Parietal cells

Serous cells

Alpha cells

Mucous neck cells

Question 19 of 25What is the enzymatic breakdown of a food molecule called?

Diffusion

Active transport

Hydrolysis

Synthesis

Denatured

Question 20 of 25The mucosa tunica of the esophagus is lined with what type of cells?

Stratified squamous epithelium

Stratified columnar epithelium

Microvilli epithelium

Pseudostratified squamous epithelium

Ciliated columnar

Question 21 of 25Digestion of which of the following would be most affected if the liver were severely damaged?

Lipids

Carbohydrates

Proteins

Starches

Monosaccharide

Question 22 of 25 The ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause which of the following to occur?

Severe indigestion would occur, caused by the lack of sufficient digestive enzymes.

This type of food would cause secretion of gastrin to cease, causing digestive upset.

Bile would be released from the gall bladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum.

The acid secretions from the stomach would be sufficient to digest this food.

Acid reflux would develop and cause damage to the esophagus.

Question 23 of 25

What are the essential amino acids?

Amino acids produced by the human body.

Amino acids that must be obtained through diet.

Amino acids that are building blocks of carbohydrates.

Amino acids released from the hydrolysis of lipids.

Amino acids that make up the essential vitamins.

Question 24 of 25What is basal metabolic rate?

Total amount of kilocalories needed to fuel daily activities

Total amount of kilocalories burned in a day

Total amount of heat produced by the body per unit of time at rest

Total amount of heat produced in a day

Total difference between energy used and kilocalories consumed in a day

Question 25 of 25A person who has collapsed due to dehydration but still maintains effective heat loss mechanisms is experiencing what disorder?

Heat exhaustion

Heat stroke

Fever due to pyrogens

Dysfunction of the hypothalamus

Week 5 DQ1

What is the control environment? How does the control environment affect a company’s internal controls? What are the negative and positive elements of a control environment?  What are two examples of strong and weak internal controls in organizations where you have worked or have first-hand knowledge? 

The control environment is the basis of the entire control system that the organization is establishing. The control environment is the value that is placed on integrity and the knowledge that unethical activity will not be tolerated. It is management’s responsibility to express behavior and attitude that enforces this ethical behavior. The control environment affects the internal control by setting a basis of control activities that safeguard assets, enhance accounting reliability, increase efficiency of operations, and compliance with laws and regulations. The negative elements of a control environment are that strict adherence must be applied continuously. Sometimes employees become overworked and underpaid and this is cause for concern because their level of carelessness goes up. Other times people might become slack in their duties over time. Some of the positive elements of a control environment are that responsibility does not lie on one person but many. Each part of a process requires several people to handle it therefore offering little opportunity to do wrong. Other positives are the process of that accountability is established and understood by each individual. An example of a weak internal control I witnessed was in a friend’s tanning bed business. The friend worked during the day and outlined how she expected her teenage employee’s to behave through policies and procedures. To my friends face the employees were the picture of a model employee but when she left in the evenings to go home and let them finish out the night the trouble would begin. The employees were letting all their friends tan for free, selling them tanning products and pocketing the cash. My friend finally put up a camera and goodness was she shocked at what was happening after she left for the evening. A strong control system that I have knowledge of is the system where I presently work…

Question

1 of 25

The epipelagic is divided into two components: the oceanic waters and the

photic zone.

neritic zone.

pelagic realm.

upper photic zone.

subtidal zone.

Question

2 of 25

Most of the primary production carried out in the open ocean is performed by

seaweeds.

kelps.

phytoplankton.

seagrasses.

zooxanthellae.

Question

3 of 25

Net phytoplankton consist mostly of

copepods.

diatoms and dinoflagellates.

nanoplankton.

cyanobacteria (blue-green algae).

nanoplankton and diatoms.

Question

4 of 25

Typically the most abundant group in the zooplankton are the.

larvaceans.

krill.

fish larvae.

nanoplankton.

copepods.

Question

5 of 25

Which of these is least likely to be seen in the epipelagic?

Suspension feeders

Deposit feeders

Primary production

First-level carnivores

Second-level carnivores

Question

6 of 25

Which of these groups builds a mucus “house?”

Copepods

Arrow worms

Larvaceans

Planktonic snails such as pteropods

Snail larvae

Question

7 of 25

Which of the following accounts for about 50% of the primary production in epipelagic waters?

Diatoms

Cyanobacteria

Dinoflagellates

Coccolithophorids

Silicoflagellates

Question

8 of 25

The following are an adaptation to the planktonic way of life except

spines.

small size.

decrease in drag.

substitution of heavy ions by light ones.

gas-filled bladders.

Question

9 of 25

The storage of lipids within the body is an adaptation in plankton since lipids

make cells heavier.

increase body density.

contain air pockets so they help in buoyancy.

contain a larger amount of energy.

are less dense than water.

Question

10 of 25

The neuston consists of animals that

swim against currents.

sink to the bottom portion of the water column.

are top carnivores in the pelagic realm.

spend their entire lives in the plankton.

live at the surface, but remain underwater.

Question

11 of 25

Counter shading is a form of

shading with bioluminescence.

warning coloration.

structural coloration.

protective coloration.

cryptic coloration.

Question

12 of 25

The rete mirabile found in some fishes is involved in.

increasing speed.

decreasing buoyancy.

digesting food.

increasing buoyancy.

conserving body heat.

Question

13 of 25

Zooplankton that migrate vertically

hibernate at night and feed during the day.

feed at the surface during the day, and migrate below the photic zone at night.

feed in the photic zone during the day, and migrate to the surface at night.

stay below the photic zone during the day, and feed at the surface at night.

migrate up and down but always stay below the photic zone.

Question

14 of 25

Most animals in the epipelagic are omnivores. This means that they eat

producers and consumers.

part of the neuston.

zooplankton.

detritus.

phytoplankton.

Question

15 of 25

What is the relationship between dissolved organic matter (DOM) and bacteria in the epipelagic?

Bacteria feed on the DOM, making it available to other animals in the food chain that feed on bacteria.

Bacteria supply most of the DOM.

Bacteria feed on DOM and thus it is unavailable to other animals.

Bacteria cannot utilize DOM and thus feed on detritus, depleting it through most of the epipelagic.

Bacteria cannot utilize DOM, making it available to animals.

Question

16 of 25

The most common limiting nutrient in the ocean is

silicon.

oxygen.

nitrogen.

carbonate.

phosphorus.

Question

17 of 25

The fall bloom in temperate waters is caused when

primary production decreases as nutrients increase.

primary production decreases due to light limitation.

primary production decreases as nutrients decrease.

primary production increases as nutrients increase.

primary production increases as the number of zooplankton increases.

Question

18 of 25

Equatorial upwelling occurs as a result of

temperature changes at the Equator.

the divergence of equatorial surface currents.

the convergence of equatorial surface currents.

winds causing the Ekman transport of surface water offshore.

El Niño conditions north and south of the Equator.

Question

19 of 25

The Southern Oscillation can be best described as

relative changes between two pressure systems.

variation in wind speed over the Pacific Ocean.

relationship between sea-surface and high-altitude pressures.

tidal differences between the Indian and Pacific Oceans.

wind-speed differences along the Equator.

Question

20 of 25

The long spines and projections seen in many epipelagic plankton are used for

feeding.

reproduction.

increasing drag.

increasing buoyancy.

gathering nutrients.

Question

21 of 25

Most epipelagic fish have a tail that is

short and wide.

short and narrow.

short and thin.

high and wide.

high and narrow.

Question

22 of 25

Which of the following adaptations is least likely to be seen in epipelagic fish?

Stiff fins

A smooth, scaleless body

Increased white muscle

Grove in body for fins

Eyes flush with body

Question

23 of 25

The largest source of dissolved organic material (DOM) in the epipelagic is

viruses.

bacteria.

phytoplankton.

zooplankton.

nekton.

Question

24 of 25

The lateral line system in fishes functions in ________________.

sensing vibrations in the water

detecting magnetic lines of force in water

sensing light in aphotic zones

sweeping surrounding water for plankton

bioluminescence

Question

25 of 25

The remote sensing system found in dolphins and some other cetaceans is ___________.

communal mutualistic behavior

extrasensory perception

echolocation

underwater acoustic sensitivity

heightened smell

 

 

Question

1 of 25

The epipelagic is divided into two components: the oceanic waters and the

photic zone.

neritic zone.

pelagic realm.

upper photic zone.

subtidal zone.

Question

2 of 25

Most of the primary production carried out in the open ocean is performed by

seaweeds.

kelps.

phytoplankton.

seagrasses.

zooxanthellae.

Question

3 of 25

Net phytoplankton consist mostly of

copepods.

diatoms and dinoflagellates.

nanoplankton.

cyanobacteria (blue-green algae).

nanoplankton and diatoms.

Question

4 of 25

Typically the most abundant group in the zooplankton are the.

larvaceans.

krill.

fish larvae.

nanoplankton.

copepods.

Question

5 of 25

Which of these is least likely to be seen in the epipelagic?

Suspension feeders

Deposit feeders

Primary production

First-level carnivores

Second-level carnivores

Question

6 of 25

Which of these groups builds a mucus “house?”

Copepods

Arrow worms

Larvaceans

Planktonic snails such as pteropods

Snail larvae

Question

7 of 25

Which of the following accounts for about 50% of the primary production in epipelagic waters?

Diatoms

Cyanobacteria

Dinoflagellates

Coccolithophorids

Silicoflagellates

Question

8 of 25

The following are an adaptation to the planktonic way of life except

spines.

small size.

decrease in drag.

substitution of heavy ions by light ones.

gas-filled bladders.

Question

9 of 25

The storage of lipids within the body is an adaptation in plankton since lipids

make cells heavier.

increase body density.

contain air pockets so they help in buoyancy.

contain a larger amount of energy.

are less dense than water.

Question

10 of 25

The neuston consists of animals that

swim against currents.

sink to the bottom portion of the water column.

are top carnivores in the pelagic realm.

spend their entire lives in the plankton.

live at the surface, but remain underwater.

Question

11 of 25

Counter shading is a form of

shading with bioluminescence.

warning coloration.

structural coloration.

protective coloration.

cryptic coloration.

Question

12 of 25

The rete mirabile found in some fishes is involved in.

increasing speed.

decreasing buoyancy.

digesting food.

increasing buoyancy.

conserving body heat.

Question

13 of 25

Zooplankton that migrate vertically

hibernate at night and feed during the day.

feed at the surface during the day, and migrate below the photic zone at night.

feed in the photic zone during the day, and migrate to the surface at night.

stay below the photic zone during the day, and feed at the surface at night.

migrate up and down but always stay below the photic zone.

Question

14 of 25

Most animals in the epipelagic are omnivores. This means that they eat

producers and consumers.

part of the neuston.

zooplankton.

detritus.

phytoplankton.

Question

15 of 25

What is the relationship between dissolved organic matter (DOM) and bacteria in the epipelagic?

Bacteria feed on the DOM, making it available to other animals in the food chain that feed on bacteria.

Bacteria supply most of the DOM.

Bacteria feed on DOM and thus it is unavailable to other animals.

Bacteria cannot utilize DOM and thus feed on detritus, depleting it through most of the epipelagic.

Bacteria cannot utilize DOM, making it available to animals.

Question

16 of 25

The most common limiting nutrient in the ocean is

silicon.

oxygen.

nitrogen.

carbonate.

phosphorus.

Question

17 of 25

The fall bloom in temperate waters is caused when

primary production decreases as nutrients increase.

primary production decreases due to light limitation.

primary production decreases as nutrients decrease.

primary production increases as nutrients increase.

primary production increases as the number of zooplankton increases.

Question

18 of 25

Equatorial upwelling occurs as a result of

temperature changes at the Equator.

the divergence of equatorial surface currents.

the convergence of equatorial surface currents.

winds causing the Ekman transport of surface water offshore.

El Niño conditions north and south of the Equator.

Question

19 of 25

The Southern Oscillation can be best described as

relative changes between two pressure systems.

variation in wind speed over the Pacific Ocean.

relationship between sea-surface and high-altitude pressures.

tidal differences between the Indian and Pacific Oceans.

wind-speed differences along the Equator.

Question

20 of 25

The long spines and projections seen in many epipelagic plankton are used for

feeding.

reproduction.

increasing drag.

increasing buoyancy.

gathering nutrients.

Question

21 of 25

Most epipelagic fish have a tail that is

short and wide.

short and narrow.

short and thin.

high and wide.

high and narrow.

Question

22 of 25

Which of the following adaptations is least likely to be seen in epipelagic fish?

Stiff fins

A smooth, scaleless body

Increased white muscle

Grove in body for fins

Eyes flush with body

Question

23 of 25

The largest source of dissolved organic material (DOM) in the epipelagic is

viruses.

bacteria.

phytoplankton.

zooplankton.

nekton.

Question

24 of 25

The lateral line system in fishes functions in ________________.

sensing vibrations in the water

detecting magnetic lines of force in water

sensing light in aphotic zones

sweeping surrounding water for plankton

bioluminescence

Question

25 of 25

The remote sensing system found in dolphins and some other cetaceans is ___________.

communal mutualistic behavior

extrasensory perception

echolocation

underwater acoustic sensitivity

heightened smell

Liberty University BIOL 101 quiz 2 complete solutions correct answers key

6 different versions

In an organism, the structure of ___________ determines its function; in a cell the structure of ____________ determines its function.

A common form of energy storage in the roots of plants:

A condensation reaction joins two organic molecules together creating an H+ ion and an – OH ion. These then

The tertiary structure of a protein describes its

A fat molecule consists of:

Testosterone signals all of the following in the human male except:

Which of the following examples from the living world exhibit well-designed structures supporting well-designed functions?

In a protein, the sequence of amino acids often folds initially into alpha helices and/or beta pleated sheets. These helices and sheets are two examples of

Polymers are degraded by the cell into monomers in a process in which the __________ from a water molecule stabilize the broken _________ in the polymer molecule.

The bases in a DNA molecule include all of the following except

The structure of testosterone could best be described as

Which of the following is the name for a class of sugar molecules?

The four major classes of biomolecules are:

An amino group, a carboxylic acid group, a hydrogen atom and one or more atoms composing a side chain (“R” group) all together make up a monomer called

A phospholipid is made up of:

A carbohydrate contains ________ atoms.

Which of the following is not a lipid?

The carbon atom is uniquely suited to building large molecules because it:

A large polymeric molecule that is nonpolar over most of its structure but very polar at one end:

Each of the following is the name of a class of monomers used as building blocks in the polymers of living organisms except for

The structure of a phospholipid molecule admirably suits it to the function of

The Miller-Urey experiments used random jolts of electrical energy to produce a variety of amino acids and other molecules. One weakness of these experiments:

Virtually all monomers in cells are built into polymers by removing _________ from one monomer and ____________ from the other monomer, and using these products to form ____________

Which of the following molecules is a polymer?

Carbon atoms are uniquely suited for building molecules in living things because

In living organisms well-designed structures support well-designed functions. This intricacy of design is seen at

Hemoglobin

Carbohydrates include all of the following except

Which of the following is not a carbohydrate

The carbon atom

Glycoproteins

DNA contains four kinds of nitrogenous bases whose principle function is

Which is not a function of a lipid

Cellulose and starch are both long polysaccharide chains made of glucose molecules.  But a cell’s enzymes can tell them apart because

When a single hemoglobin subunit picks up an oxygen molecule

Amino acids are building blocks used in building proteins.  About how many different kinds of amino acids are there for this purpose

Which class of biomolecules is most efficient as a long-term storage, concentrated source of energy?

What stimulates the release of the enzyme amylase into the pancreatic duct so that it can break down starches?

Which of the following terms describes or names a cell that swims like an animal using cilia, but is green in color like a plant?

Which of the following is NOT part of the Cell Theory?

A eukaryotic cell structure (organelle) that results when a vesicle formed from the Golgi complex simply remains in the cytoplasm of the cell:

Which of the following statements is an element of cell theory?

Biologists have discovered living things that defy (do not agree with) “Cell Theory”. Which aspect of the cell theory is most directly violated by slime molds?

When the enzyme amylase from the pancreas is finally ready for use, it is stored within cell cytoplasmic vesicles called___.

In order for the nasty bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes to adhere to your throat cells, attachment to your cells must be made. This is done using new proteins called _____ and new cell structures called ________.

Two unusual features of protozoan cells like Paramecium are

It is difficult for human macrophages to detect and destroy Strep cells because Strep cells

A prokaryotic cell is protected against osmotic swelling and rupture by its

A eukaryotic cell structure (organelle) in which the final stages of protein maturation are completed:

Energy processing in eukaryotic cells often involves linearly arranged reactions. That is why energy processing organelles have highly folded membranes within them—structures known as

Respiratory proteins, ion channels, transport proteins and attachment point proteins are all examples of protein found

____ are little molecular machines (eukaryotic cell structures) that move vesicles and organelles throughout the cytoplasm of the cell.

When a protein molecule has folded into its final form, it leaves the endoplasmic reticulum (RER) and travels to the Golgi complex by means of

Some species of Paramecium receive sugars from

Within an acinar cell, the enzyme amylase reaches its final form within

An important function of the eukaryotic cell membrane is to

Which of the following is NOT a kind of protein found in a prokaryotic membrane?

It is impossible to write a brief dictionary definition of life because

____________ house enzymes that trap carbon dioxide and bind it to larger substrate molecules.

What structures inside the eukaryotic cell provide a skeletal framework that supports and shapes the cell?

________ and ________ are structures that walk along microtubules in the eukaryotic cell carrying vesicles from place to place.

To say that “the cell is the unit of life” means that

Which of the following organisms is considered to be eukaryotic

____ are little molecular machines that move vesicles and organelles

throughout the cytoplasm of the cell

Cells are small because

Which of the following occurs in the nucleolus

In order for nasty bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes to stick to your throat cells, attachment proteins must be made. These proteins are called

Prokaryotic organisms have a definite lack of which of the following

A saltine cracker is mostly starch. If cracker bits are digested into small subunit parts, what kind of molecule would be the product?

Discrete, visible lengths of DNA sequence found in human cell nuclei are known as

Ignoring cell size and just counting numbers, most of the cells in nature are this type

Bacteria are typically very mall, yet even the largest bacterium is still a prokaryote because it

Zoochlorella cells (algae that do photosynthesis) benefit by living inside Paramecium cells. They

 

Question 1 The nucleoid of a prokaryotic organism contains

Question 2 The bases in a DNA molecule include all of the following except

Question 3 Which of the following is NOT a kind of protein found in a prokaryotic membrane?

Question 4 ____ are little molecular machines (eukaryotic cell structures) that move vesicles and organelles throughout the cytoplasm of the cell.

Question 5 Which of these is an organelle that would be useful in a cell that takes in and destroys viruses?

Question 6 Within an acinar cell, the enzyme amylase reaches its final form within

Question 7 When a prokaryotic bacterial cell has a second outer membrane, the membrane’s function is to

Question 8 Biologists have discovered living things that defy (do not agree with) “Cell Theory”. Which aspect of the cell theory is most directly violated by slime molds?

Question 9 A single­stranded polymer whose monomers contain the sugar ribose and the nitrogenous base uracil:

Question 10 A fat molecule consists of:

Question 11 Respiratory proteins, ion channels, transport proteins and attachment point proteins are all examples of protein found

Question 12 The boundary around a prokaryotic cell can best be described as

Question 13 The structure of a phospholipid molecules admirably suits it to the function of

Question 14 Some slime molds violate the first element of cell theory because

Question 15 An important function of the eukaryotic cell membrane is to

Question 16 Bacteria are typically very small, yet even the largest bacterium is still a prokaryote because it

Question 17 A eukaryotic cell structure (organelle) in which the final stages of protein maturation are completed:

Question 18 Which of the following is the name for a class of sugar molecules?

Question 19 Which of the following cells are prokaryotic?

Question 20 A five­carbon sugar that is bonded to a nitrogen­containing base and to either one, two or three phosphate groups is known as a(n) _________ monomer.

Question 21 DNA contains four kinds of nitrogenous bases whose principle function is

Question 22 Glycoproteins

Question 23 ________ and ________ are structures that walk along microtubules in the eukaryotic cell carrying vesicles from place to place.

Question 24 When the enzyme amylase from the pancreas is finally ready for use, it is stored within cell cytoplasmic vesicles called___.

Question 25 In a eukaryotic cell the reactions of _______ process energy into the form of ATP within a structure called the __________.

 

Question 1 Eukaryotic cells heavily responsible for making proteins have their ribosomes arranged within a network of channels known as the

Question 2 ____________ house enzymes that trap carbon dioxide and bind it to larger substrate molecules.

Question 3 When a prokaryotic bacterial cell has a second outer membrane, the membrane’s function is to

Question 4 Generally speaking, prokaryotic cells___________ eukaryotic cells.

Question 5 Within an acinar cell, the enzyme amylase reaches its final form within

Question 6 A single­stranded polymer whose monomers contain the sugar ribose and the nitrogenous base uracil:

Question 7 Biologists have discovered living things that defy (do not agree with) “Cell Theory”. Which aspect of the cell theory is most directly violated by slime molds?

Question 8 The nucleoid of a prokaryotic organism contains

Question 9 The boundary around a prokaryotic cell can best be described as

Question 10 Which of the following cells are prokaryotic?

Question 11 Ribosomes in an acinar cell generate the amino acid sequence of the digestive enzyme

Question 12 What stimulates the release of the enzyme amylase into the pancreatic duct so that it can break down starches?

Question 13 Respiratory proteins, ion channels, transport proteins and attachment point proteins are all examples of protein found

Question 14 Consider the following definition: “A cell is the smallest unit of an organism capable of independent functioning, composed of a membrane, enclosing a nucleus, cytoplasm and inanimate matter.” Which of the following phrases best criticized this definition?

Question 15 The structure of a phospholipid molecules admirably suits it to the function of

Question 16 A five­carbon sugar that is bonded to a nitrogen­containing base and to either one, two or three phosphate groups is known as a(n) _________ monomer.

Question 17 Polymers of amino acids that are linked in linear chains and that contain atoms of nitrogen are called:

Question 18 Which is not a function of a lipid?

Question 19 Which of the following is NOT part of the Cell Theory?

Question 20 The Streptococcal cell structure that does the most direct damage to the human body is

Question 21 Cells are small because

Question 22 Which of these cell organelles has ribosomes in its membranes? (Ribosomes do protein synthesis.)

Question 23 Which of the following statements is an element of cell theory?

Question 24 Five of the six carbon atoms in a glucose molecule are typically found

Question 25 A prokaryotic cell is protected against osmotic swelling and rupture by its

 

Question 1 Which of the following is NOT a kind of protein found in a prokaryotic membrane?

Question 2 Which of the following is a class of monomers used as building blocks in the polymers of living organisms?

Question 3 Testosterone signals all of the following in the human male except:

Question 4 When the enzyme amylase from the pancreas is finally ready for use, it is stored within cell cytoplasmic vesicles called___.

Question 5 Which of the following occurs in the nucleolus?

Question 6 Within an acinar cell, the enzyme amylase reaches its final form within

Question 7 Respiratory proteins, ion channels, transport proteins and attachment point proteins are all examples of protein found

Question 8 Bacteria are typically very small, yet even the largest bacterium is still a prokaryote because it

Question 9 Consider the following definition: “A cell is the smallest unit of an organism capable of independent functioning, composed of a membrane, enclosing a nucleus, cytoplasm and inanimate matter.” Which of the following phrases best criticized this definition?

Question 10 Polymers of amino acids that are linked in linear chains and that contain atoms of nitrogen are called:

Question 11 It is impossible to write a brief dictionary definition of life because

Question 12 Five of the six carbon atoms in a glucose molecule are typically found

Question 13 Which of the following statements is an element of cell theory?

Question 14 The four major classes of biomolecules are:

Question 15 Eukaryotic cells heavily responsible for making proteins have their ribosomes arranged within a network of channels known as the

Question 16 A eukaryotic cell that needs to have a lot of ATP energy would have lots of

Question 17 Some slime molds violate the first element of cell theory because

Question 18 The Streptococcal cell structure that does the most direct damage to the human body is

Question 19 In order for the nasty bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes to adhere to your throat cells, attachment to your cells must be made. This is done using new proteins called _____ and new cell structures called ________.

Question 20 Which of the following cells are prokaryotic?

Question 21 A single­stranded polymer whose monomers contain the sugar ribose and the nitrogenous base uracil:

Question 22 The structure of testosterone could best be described as

Question 23 Which of these is an organelle that would be useful in a cell that takes in and destroys viruses?

Question 24 A fat molecule consists of:

Question 25 The binding of acetylcholine to an acinar cell surface receptor protein causes an immediate

 

Question 1 The saturated fats of animals differ from the unsaturated ones of plants. Unsaturated fats have

Question 2 The structure of testosterone could best be described as

Question 3 In order for the nasty bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes to adhere to your throat cells, attachment to your cells must be made. This is done using new proteins called _____ and new cell structures called ________.

Question 4 Which of these is an organelle that would be useful in a cell that takes in and destroys viruses?

Question 5 __________, the cell’s DNA plus its scaffolding contains the cell’s archive of ______.

Question 6 Consider the following definition: “A cell is the smallest unit of an organism capable of independent functioning, composed of a membrane, enclosing a nucleus, cytoplasm and inanimate matter.” Which of the following phrases best criticized this definition?

Question 7 A sugar is a carbohydrate because a sugar molecule

Question 8 Lipids are a class of molecules defined by

Question 9 The binding of acetylcholine to an acinar cell surface receptor protein causes an immediate

Question 10 The nucleoid of a prokaryotic organism contains

Question 11 Which of the following is NOT a kind of protein found in a prokaryotic membrane?

Question 12 Glycoproteins

Question 13 It is impossible to write a brief dictionary definition of life because

Question 14 Microcompartments

Question 15 An amino group, a carboxylic acid group, a hydrogen atom and one or more atoms composing a side chain (“R” group) all together make up a monomer called

Question 16 In a eukaryotic cell the reactions of _______ process energy into the form of ATP within a structure called the __________.

Question 17 Ribosomes in an acinar cell generate the amino acid sequence of the digestive enzyme

Question 18 A phospholipid is made up of:

Question 19 The Streptococcal cell structure that does the most direct damage to the human body is

Question 20 The structure of a phospholipid molecules admirably suits it to the function of

Question 21 Cells are small because

Question 22 Within an acinar cell, the enzyme amylase reaches its final form within

Question 23 A carbohydrate contains ________ atoms.

Question 24 It is difficult for human macrophages to detect and destroy Strep cells because Strep cells

Question 25 Which of these cell organelles has ribosomes in its membranes? (Ribosomes do protein synthesis.)

Question

1 of 25

The lower limit of the intertidal zone is the

average high tide.

average middle tide.

lowest tide.

lowest edge of the rocky substrate.

None of the above choices are correct: it varies according to type of substrate.

Question

2 of 25

The particular characteristic most widely used in classifying intertidal communities is which of the following?

Type of tides

Relative exposure to air

Type of substrate

Type of seaweeds

Relative immersion by water

Question

3 of 25

Which of the following strategies is not used to avoid desiccation in the intertidal?

Closing shells

Crowding in areas that are always moist

Burrowing into substrate

Mucus

Moving out of tide pools

Question

4 of 25

Most sessile animals living on rocky shores are which of the following?

Deposit feeders

Carnivores

Detritus feeders

Filter feeders

Grazers

Question

5 of 25

If a rocky shore highly exposed to wave action is compared to a similar rocky shore that is a lot less exposed to wave action, one should expect that barnacles living on the more exposed shore show a

wider vertical distribution.

narrower tolerance to salinity.

narrower tolerance to temperature.

narrower vertical distribution.

higher resistance to predators.

Question

6 of 25

Byssal threads are used by mussels to cope with.

desiccation.

wave shock.

restricted feeding.

salinity changes.

temperature changes.

Question

7 of 25

Vertical zonation on rocky shores is mostly the result of differences in tolerance to

 

wave action.

exposure.

predation.

light.

salinity.

Question

8 of 25

This organism is typical of the upper intertidal on rocky shores.

Mussels

Barnacles

Sponges

Sea anemones

Periwinkles

Question

9 of 25

The middle intertidal is characterized by which of the following?

Constant wetting by splash and spray

Long exposure to air

Steady immersion

Exposure and immersion on a regular basis

Splashing during high tide and complete exposure at low tide

Question

10 of 25

Intertidal organisms from exposed areas sometimes have thicker shells than their counterparts from less exposed areas. This is thought to be an adaptation to

desiccation.

restricted feeding.

wave shock.

salinity changes.

temperature changes.

Question

11 of 25

Predation by sea stars on rocky shores ultimately results in

fewer species.

less wave action.

a decrease in the number of seaweeds.

an increase in the number of mussels.

more species.

Question

12 of 25

Ecological succession ultimately results in

a climax community.

an upper-limit stage.

competitive exclusion.

keystone predation.

vertical zonation.

Question

13 of 25

Which of the following is generally considered to be the greatest limiting resource in the rocky intertidal?

Salinity

Space

Prey

Availability of mates

Light availability

Question

14 of 25

Which of these organisms is typically a very rare component of soft-bottom intertidal communities?

Burrowing organisms

Detritus feeders

Seaweeds

Infauna

Deposit feeders

Question

15 of 25

Most animals living on sandy beaches are included among which of the following?

Infauna

Deposit feeders

Macrofauna

Producers

Grazers

Question

16 of 25

Fine sediments are characteristic of

shores exposed to wave action.

rocky shores.

areas with wide temperature fluctuations.

calm, less exposed shores.

areas that experience considerable water flow.

Question

17 of 25

The interstitial water in muddy bottoms

has plenty of oxygen since temperature is much higher than in the water column.

accumulates oxygen as a result of photosynthesis by inhabitants of the sediment.

recirculates oxygen very frequently so it is high.

is deficient in oxygen.

is deficient in oxygen but only during the day.

Question

18 of 25

The main source of food in muddy-bottom intertidal communities is

seaweeds

detritus

plankton

large prey

epifauna

Question

19 of 25

On Atlantic shores, the dog whelk (Nucella lapillus) has two color forms: white-shelled and brown-shelled. Survival of one form over the other form in a region appears to be related to

temperature.

salinity.

substrate type.

prey availability.

predators.

Question

20 of 25

What organism would be most likely to be found in the upper intertidal zone of a rocky shoreline?

Mussels

Seaweed

Encrusting algae

Barnacles

Irish moss

Question

21 of 25

In soft-bottomed intertidal communities, locations with strong waves and currents are most likely to have which type of bottom?

Gravel

Sand

Silt

Clay

Mud

Question

22 of 25

Meiofauna live

on rocky shores.

on sandy bottoms.

between grains of sediment.

in burrows.

in the water column.

Question

23 of 25

A species that significantly influences the structure and diversity of its community is a ______________.

predator species

keystone species

prey animal

primary producer

apex predator

Question

24 of 25

The best reason for putting a cage over certain organisms in an intertidal study area is so that __________________.

other organisms can be kept out of the study area

biologists can control when certain animals mate

their respiration rates can be measured

they can be removed from the area

body measurements can be taken

Question

25 of 25

Two sediments that are very rich in detritus are ______________.

sand and gravel

sand and clay

silt and gravel

clay and sand

silt and clay

 

 

Question

1 of 25

The mesopelagic zone refers to the ocean depths in which there is

enough light to support plant growth.

no light at all.

dim light, but not enough for plant growth.

enough light for primary production by bacteria.

dim light, but enough to support only some hardy plants.

Question

2 of 25

Where is the main thermocline located?

In the mesopelagic.

Above the mesopelagic.

Below the mesopelagic.

It varies since the thermocline disappears in the tropics.

It varies since the thermocline moves up and down in the water column depending on the amount of oxygen.

Question

3 of 25

Photophores are

specialized eyes.

buoyancy-regulating organs.

specialized jaws.

light-sensitive organs that lack the lens of true eyes.

light-producing organs.

Question

4 of 25

Which of the following is not true regarding the deep-scattering layer (DSL)?

Its position rises at night and moves down during the day.

It is comprised of fish, shrimp, squids and jellyfish.

It is found at depths of 300-500 meters.

It was discovered by sonar.

Its position is deeper on nights with a new moon.

Question

5 of 25

The tubular eyes of some mid-water animals are adapted for

increasing the field of vision.

producing light.

seeing in the complete absence of light.

sensing changes in depth.

sensing changes in salinity.

Question

6 of 25

The presence of bioluminescent organs on the underside of mid-water fishes is involved in

countershading.

enlargement of silhouette.

creating a transparency effect.

cryptic coloration.

counterillumination.

Question

7 of 25

Deep-sea pelagic fishes are characterized by all of the following except

small eyes.

absent or reduced swim bladder.

red color.

flabby muscles.

large mouth and teeth.

Question

8 of 25

Which of the following is an important feeding adaptation among deep-sea fishes?

Migration to shallower water to feed

Feeding on males, hence the term “male parasitism”

Ability to eat prey bigger than themselves

Strong muscles that allow them to move fast to catch any available prey

Absence of a stomach

Question

9 of 25

Pheromones are special chemicals that are used to

digest food.

attract mates.

catch prey.

transport oxygen.

produce bioluminescence.

Question

10 of 25

The energy source for the bacteria that thrive around deep-sea hydrothermal vents is

hydrogen sulfide.

light.

heat from the hydrothermal vents.

detritus.

tube-worm tissues.

Question

11 of 25

The major advantage that deep-sea benthic animals have over pelagic ones is that their food

is easier to digest.

falls to the bottom and stays in one place, thus being available for a longer time.

gets to be eaten before it gets to pelagic animals.

gets less decayed by bacteria

produces less detritus.

Question

12 of 25

A shrimp that occurs in large numbers around deep-sea hydrothermal vents does not have eyes. Light-sensitive cells on the top of the body, however, appear to be used to detect faint light from

bioluminescent predators.

the surface.

faint glow around vents.

bioluminescent prey.

mates.

Question

13 of 25

An unknown fish has been brought to the student to examine. This fish is black, relatively small with small eyes and weak, flabby muscles. This fish is most likely from which zone?

Mesopelagic (vertical migratory)

Mesopelagic (vertical non-migrator)

Epipelagic

Deep pelagic

Deep-sea benthic

Question

14 of 25

Traditional fisheries are those that

have their catches routinely recorded.

catch shellfish, not finfish.

do not use boats.

use relatively simple gear and methods.

do not sell their catches to the general public.

Question

15 of 25

Most marine food resources are taken from

coral reefs.

the continental shelf.

open waters off the continental shelf.

estuaries.

mariculture ponds.

Question

16 of 25

By definition, pelagic catches are those that are harvested from

the open water.

the bottom.

estuaries.

waters where primary production is increased by upwelling.

the continental shelf.

Question

17 of 25

Trawls are nets that

surround and trap fish.

float on the surface.

are allowed to drift along the surface.

are placed along the bottom to trap passing fishes.

are dragged along the bottom or through the water column.

Question

18 of 25

The maximum sustainable yield is best defined as the

highest catch that can be taken without overfishing.

maximum fishing effort allowed after overfishing is reached.

highest catch that will pay the minimum cost of the fishing effort.

minimum catch that will still allow the population to grow.

the annual size of the catch that will balance natural death and predation.

Question

19 of 25

Continued catches above the maximum sustainable yield

can be increased to prevent overfishing.

will result in underutilization.

will result in a decrease of fishing effort.

must be decreased in order to decrease population size.

will result in overfishing.

Question

20 of 25

Which of the following best describes commercial fisheries around the world?

Most have been affected by overfishing.

About 20% have been affected by overfishing.

All have been affected by overfishing.

All have been affected by overfishing but none have been exhausted.

None in the Southern Hemisphere have been affected by overfishing.

Question

21 of 25

The farming of salmon includes all the following problems except

higher levels of contaminants in farmed fish tissue.

pollution released into environment.

it is more expensive.

it threatens genetic identity of wild salmon.

it increases parasites

Question

22 of 25

“By-catch” is the name given to

unwanted species that are caught while fishing.

species caught for industrial purposes.

krill and other shellfish.

species raised in fish farms.

species caught as part of traditional fisheries.

Question

23 of 25

Releasing farmed salmon fry to grow at sea and harvesting them when they return to the river where they were released is called

open mariculture.

closed mariculture.

salmon ranching.

traditional salmon runs.

intensive mariculture.

Question

24 of 25

Desalination plants

extract minerals for industrial use from seawater.

convert seawater into fresh water.

extract table salt from seawater.

convert seawater into brackish water for industrial uses.

extract oil from seawater.

Question

25 of 25

Successful pharmaceutical uses for marine organisms include all of the following except

red seaweed extract used for weight gain.

sponge extract used as anti-inflammatory.

squalamine from sharks used to treat cancer.

bryostating from bryozoans used to treat cancer.

horseshoe crab blood used to test vaccines from contamination.

Question1 of 20
Homology is evidence of ______.
A. directional selection
B. convergent evolution
C. genetic drift
D. common ancestry
2 of 20
Which one of the following statements is true?
A. Natural selection works on non-heritable traits.
B. Natural selection works on variation already present in a population.
C. Individuals evolve through natural selection.
D. Organisms evolve structures that they need.
3 of 20
Natural selection results in ______.
A. increased genetic variation
B. offspring better adapted to a future environment
C. a decrease in the size of a population
D. offspring adapted to their current environment
4 of 20
Who believed in species change by passing acquired characteristics on to offspring?
A. Wallace
B. Mendel
C. Lamarck
D. Darwin
5 of 20
Which one of the following will prevent significant genetic drift?
A. Gene flow is absent.
B. The population size is large.
C. There is genetic variation.
D. Variation in a particular trait is heritable.
6 of 20
Which of these types of Galapagos species most influenced Darwin to develop the theory of species change by natural selection?
A. Goats
B. Reptiles
C. Small birds
D. Cacti
7 of 20
All of the alleles of all of the genes within a population make up that population’s ______.
A. genotype
B. heterozygosity
C. gene pool
D. gene flow
8 of 20
A small population of deer is introduced to an island. All the males have 11-13 points on their antlers. After several generations, if all males have 12 point antlers, this is due to
A. disruptive selection.
B. stabilizing selection.
C. directional selection.
D. bottleneck effect.
9 of 20
Two nearby populations, in which there is some movement of individuals between the populations, are an example of
A. gene flow.
B. disruptive selection.
C. genetic drift.
D. bottleneck effect.
10 of 20
Evidence which supports the theory of evolution is found in studies of
A. embryos.
B. biochemistry.
C. fossils.
D. All of the above.
11 of 20
Which of the following is an example of sexual selection?
A. Peahens choose to mate with peacocks that have the most beautiful tails.
B. Bacteria evolve resistance to antibiotics.
C. Sexual recombination occurs during meiosis.
D. Cheetahs experienced a population bottleneck.
12 of 20
The publication date of Darwin’s The Origin of Species was
A. 1809.
B. 1830.
C. 1869.
D. 1859.
13 of 20
Imagine a population of tree frogs in South America whose habitat has been reduced to the point where only 25 frogs survive. This is an example of
A. founder effect.
B. bottleneck effect.
C. genetic drift.
D. All of the above.
14 of 20
Homologous structures, such as a bat wing and whale flipper
A. are similar externally but have different basic structures and were probably not derived from a common ancestor.
B. are the result of pairs of chromosomes that are identical in bats and whales.
C. have the same underlying structure due to inheritance from a common ancestor.
D. are structures that did not develop in response to natural selection.
15 of 20
Which of the following is an example of directional selection?
A. The birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same.
B. There is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.
C. Garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.
D. A catastrophe wipes out nearly 99% of a population.
16 of 20
A small population of deer is introduced to an island. All the males have 11-13 points on their antlers. After several generations, if most males have antlers with 20 points, this is the result of
A. the founder effect.
B. stabilizing selection.
C. disruptive selection.
D. directional selection.
17 of 20
Darwin and Lamarck both realized that most species produce many more offspring than is necessary to maintain a constant population. What is the fate of the excess individuals?
A. Evolution kills them off.
B. They evolve to take advantage of natural resources.
C. The more favorable forms survive and reproduce, while the others do not.
D. They mutate and then are able to adapt to new environments.
18 of 20
Genetic drift results in a change in gene frequencies because
A. the population size is so small that chance occurrences can alter gene frequencies.
B. reproduction is non-random within the population.
C. the population has not yet stabilized.
D. the population is so large that natural selection has little noticeable effect.
19 of 20
Which of the following males in a given population would be considered the most fit in an evolutionary sense? One that produced
A. 1,000 offspring, of which 100 survived but 99 did not reproduce.
B. two offspring, both of which survived and produced offspring of their own.
C. 10 offspring, of which 10 survived, but nine did not reproduce.
D. 100 offspring of which 10 survived but nine did not reproduce.
20 of 20
While on the Beagle, Darwin was influenced by a book by Charles Lyell that suggested that Earth was ______ and sculpted by geologic processes that ______ .
A. old; continue
B. old; no longer occur
C. young; continue
D. young; no longer occur

 

Select one of the following RFP procurement cases to develop your PP1 RFP:

A New Practice Field
You own a semipro baseball team (in the location of your choice) and you want to construct a new practice field. You own the land already (20 acres). The land is relatively flat and it has only a few dilapidated structures (barns) and trees on it. Connecting up with existing water and sewer lines would present no unusual technical problems. It is now September, and you would love to have that field ready to go by March two years hence. Your vision would include the playing field, a small clubhouse, and a parking area that would hold about 50 cars. No spectator seating would be required. The decision to go with one general contractor has already been made.

An Environmental Impact Study
You are a general contractor wishing to put up a modest sized cement production plant on the outskirts of town. The plant would operate on only one 10-hour shift per day and would produce about 400 cubic yards of output per day for six days per week. It is necessary for an environmental impact study to be undertaken before the county can issue a permit. The biggest issue is, of course, the air quality implications of cement production, but potential impacts on water quality are of concern as well. It is now October, and you want to start building the plant by the end of next summer, if at all possible. It is now time to issue an RFP to procure an environmental impact analysis. Studies of this type normally require about three months of concerted effort by a team of analysts.

An Inventory Control System
You sell seeds from a catalog, and business has been blossoming. However, your inventory tracking system is inadequate. In high season, supply outages have been frequent, and customer complaints over delays have been increasing. You fear that your business will die on the vine unless something is done to improve things. You want to hire a management consultant to design a new inventory tracking system. This kind of work normally requires about six months worth of effort. It is now May. You need to issue an RFP for this work. The procurement will be for the design stage only—implementation may or may not be handled under a separate contract at a later date.

The first page of your overall submission must be a cover sheet that contains the project title (hopefully, not “PP2” or anything like it—be inventive), your name, your e-mail address, and course identifying information (e.g., “PROJ598 for this term” will suffice—obviously, use the correct term identifier). The second page will be a Table of Contents (TOC) listing the major RFP sections together with page numbers. Include on this page a listing of the references that you used in the RFP preparation, including websites, if any. The next 1-to-10 pages constitute the main body of the RFP. Appendix B contains a list of suppliers to whom you would send the RFP. These must be real bona fide contractors—not hypothetical ones. On that page, say how you chose these potential suppliers. The cover sheet, TOC/references page, and supplier list do not count toward the 10-page limitation.

The structure should, therefore be:

Cover sheet (one page)
Table of contents and references (one page)
RFP main body (no more than 10 pages)
Appendices (no page limit)
Appendix B: Supplier list (one page)