Day: April 27, 2018

DQ1

What is accrual accounting? Why do generally accepted accounting principles require accrual accounting?  What is the difference between accrual and cash accounting? When might an accountant use cash basis accounting without violating generally accepted accounting principles?

Accrual accounting is the reporting of revenues and expenses in the period of time that they occur, even if payment was not received or paid. Generally accepted accounting principles state that all revenues and expenses need to be reported during the time period that they occur. The cash-basis of accounting is the recording of revenue and expenses when payment is received and paid-out. This form of accounting violates the generally accepted accounting principles because it goes against the revenue recognition and the expense recognition principles. The cash

DQ2

What is the revenue recognition principle? What is the expense recognition principle? Why are they important to financial reporting?

In order for organizations to provide reliable, relevant, and transparent financial information to owners, managers, investors, lenders, and the IRS they must use accrual based financial accounting systems. The revenue recognition principle necessitate that organizations recognize their revenue during the accounting time period that it is earned, not necessarily received…

Week 5 DQ1

What is the control environment? How does the control environment affect a company’s internal controls? What are the negative and positive elements of a control environment?  What are two examples of strong and weak internal controls in organizations where you have worked or have first-hand knowledge? 

The control environment is the basis of the entire control system that the organization is establishing. The control environment is the value that is placed on integrity and the knowledge that unethical activity will not be tolerated. It is management’s responsibility to express behavior and attitude that enforces this ethical behavior. The control environment affects the internal control by setting a basis of control activities that safeguard assets, enhance accounting reliability, increase efficiency of operations, and compliance with laws and regulations. The negative elements of a control environment are that strict adherence must be applied continuously. Sometimes employees become overworked and underpaid and this is cause for concern because their level of carelessness goes up. Other times people might become slack in their duties over time. Some of the positive elements of a control environment are that responsibility does not lie on one person but many. Each part of a process requires several people to handle it therefore offering little opportunity to do wrong. Other positives are the process of that accountability is established and understood by each individual. An example of a weak internal control I witnessed was in a friend’s tanning bed business. The friend worked during the day and outlined how she expected her teenage employee’s to behave through policies and procedures. To my friends face the employees were the picture of a model employee but when she left in the evenings to go home and let them finish out the night the trouble would begin. The employees were letting all their friends tan for free, selling them tanning products and pocketing the cash. My friend finally put up a camera and goodness was she shocked at what was happening after she left for the evening. A strong control system that I have knowledge of is the system where I presently work…

Liberty University BIOL 101 quiz 3 complete solutions correct answers key

7 different versions

Question 1 Light dependent reactions are carried out both on and in between photosystems. This process is like the last stage of aerobic respiration in that both

Question 2 In the chloroplast, light dependent reactions take place in the __________________ while light independent reactions take place in the __________________.

Question 3 When your car engine burns the octane in gasoline, at least 50% of the energy of the octane

Question 4 The value of the three stages of aerobic respiration is their ability to break down glucose, a single molecule, with the resultant production of about

Question 5 Enzymes are important because they

Question 6 Accessory pigments and chlorophylls work together within the thylakoid membrane in clusters called __________ . They harvest light energy and use it to transfer electrons to _______________.

Question 7 Energy­releasing reactions drive biosynthetic ones forward by contributing to a pool of

Question 8 The energy storage molecule that connects endergonic and exergonic reactions, driving endergonic reactions forward, is

Question 9 ________ and ________ are products of aerobic respiration.

Question 10 The physicist’s definition of energy is _______________ for use in defining energy changes within a living cell.

Question 11 The final stage of aerobic respiration involves

Question 12 The cell’s pumping of substances against diffusion forces that would carry those substances the other way is termed

Question 13 An allosteric enzyme

Question 14 Each wavelength of light has its own

Question 15 The three metabolic pathways that make up aerobic respiration are really all parts of one larger pathway because

Question 16 Which of the following is not a product of the Krebs cycle?

Question 17 Which of the following phrases best describes the role of NADPH in photosynthesis?

Question 18 The process of __________ can be defined as about 30 individual, sequential chemical reactions that form three metabolic pathways: one in the cytoplasm and two within the mitochondrion.

Question 19 Griffith exposed weak living bacteria to just the fluids from dead virulent bacteria. Some of these weak bacteria became virulent and could now kill mice. What control experiment did he do to argue that his weak bacteria changed to virulence in these studies?

Question 20 Glucose + _________ + 36 ADP yields _________ + 6H2O + 36 _________.

Question 21 DNA is stored within the ____________ of a cell in a __________ fiber called chromatin.

Question 22 For most chemical reactions in the non­living world, the energy required to break bonds in the reactant molecules

Question 23 _________ is a reactant in the process of aerobic respiration and _______ is a product of the same process.

Question 24 NADPH is formed when

Question 25 Existing chemical bonds between atoms are broken and new ones are formed between different atoms. This process

 

For most chemical reactions in the non-living world, the energy required to break bonds in the reactant molecules

In biosynthesis of a protein, energy for bonding amino acids together comes from

A producer organism is called a “producer” because it produces

Physicists define energy as

Reactants like hydrogen and oxygen molecules and are converted into a product like water molecules in the course of

Systems that convert energy from one form to another are

In a long metabolic pathway, the multiple changes made to an initial reactant molecule are entirely controlled by

Energy-releasing reactions drive biosynthetic ones forward by contributing to a pool of

If bacteria can get their energy for life from a single kind of chemical reaction, then that reaction

An endergonic reaction always

An allosteric enzyme

A useful way for a cell biologist to define energy is

In nature, as energy freely changes from one form to another

On a cold day, your cells depend on ________ to maintain an operating temperature of 37 degrees Celsius.

Whenever chemical bonds are broken, energy is __________. Whenever chemical bonds form, energy is __________.

Producer organisms convert _______ energy to chemical energy—the energy of C―H and C―O―H bonds.

Three phosphate groups linked to a ribose sugar which, in turn, is linked to a pyrimidine base known as adenine: this phrase describes the structure of

An excess amount of product accumulates at the end of a metabolic pathway. The product then binds to the allosteric site of the first enzyme along the pathway shutting down the pathway. We call this process

The energy storage molecule that connects endergonic and exergonic reactions, driving endergonic reactions forward, is

Existing chemical bonds between atoms are broken and new ones are formed between different atoms. This process

The activation energy of a reaction can be lowered if the reaction is catalyzed by

A single regulatory molecule can shut down multiple metabolic pathways if it is able to

In respiration, chemical energy is transferred from glucose to ATP. The energy transfer however, is not 100% efficient. In the transfer, some of the energy is lost as

Moving ions across a membrane requires energy when

Which of the following substances would most likely enable a flagellum to drive a bacterium forward through the medium in which it is swimming?

Metabolic pathways

Glucose gets used up in muscle cells because

Within the cell, useful chemical energy is held in stable form as

In building a protein, when amino acids are to be bonded together

Positively charged protons move freely from one side of the mitochondrial membrane to

If moving ions across a membrane requires energy it is because

To derive energy from an ATP molecule

If the final product of a metabolic pathway begins to build up in excess, the pathway can often be slowed down by a process called

Light dependent reactions of photosynthesis produce

The wavelengths of light used in photosynthesis are found in the _________ portion of the electromagnetic spectrum.

When light of the correct wavelength hits a photosynthetic pigment molecule

All of the six carbon atoms in each glucose molecule leave respiration in the form of carbon dioxide. Most of them leave during which part of aerobic respiration?

Which of the following phrases best describes the role of NADPH in photosynthesis?

In the process of glycolysis one molecule of _______ is converted to two molecules of __________.

The overall process that uptakes energy-poor molecules (CO2 and H2O) from their reservoirs in nature and converts them into energy-rich molecules is

The process of aerobic respiration begins with

Photosynthesis and respiration are complementing processes within a global cycle known as the

Photosynthesis and respiration are complementary processes within

The value of the three stages of aerobic respiration is their ability to break down glucose, a single molecule, with the resultant production of about

The Krebs cycle’s NADH products are of value because

In photosynthesis, ______ and ______ are used to build_______ and release______.

When electrons flow between photosystems, they ________ which can be used to generate new ____________ molecules.

New molecules of glucose are produced

Accessory pigments enable the chloroplast to

In photosynthesis the H atoms used to make high-energy carbohydrates like glucose come from

In the electron transfer phosphorylation process, ______ is a reactant and _____ is a product.

In the chloroplast, light dependent reactions take place in the __________________ while light independent reactions take place in the __________________.

If fermentation reactions did not occur on earth then in places where no oxygen is available

Oxygen is an important molecule to both respiration and photosynthesis. If evolution created these two processes one after the other, which would probably have had to appear first on earth?

During the electron transfer reactions, protons (H+ ions) are pumped (moved) to one side of the inner membrane of the mitochondrion. The value of this pumping is that the proton gradient is then used

Fermentation of sugar causes grape juice to become wine. In fermentation, the two products given off are ____________ and _________. The latter product accumulates in the wine during the process.

The three metabolic pathways that make up aerobic respiration are really all parts of one larger pathway because

Which of the following is valuable as the most immediate source of the greatest amount of ATP energy given off during aerobic respiration?

Light independent reactions serve to

Identify the correct order of the processes of aerobic respiration

In all of aerobic respiration, the last molecule waiting at the very end to accept electrons

The “powerhouse” organelle within the cell in which electron transfer reactions are occur

In the light-dependent reaction, the two photosystems work together to keep the concentrations of  ______ and ______ appropriate for their amounts needed in the light-independent reaction

During the entire aerobic respiration process, the breakdown of a single molecule of glucose results in the production of

Which of the following is the most immediate source of the greatest amount of ATP energy given off during aerobic respiration?

Fermentation of sugar causes bread dough to “rise”.  In fermentation, the two products given off are ____________ and _________.  The latter product evaporates from the bread during the baking process

A chemoautotroph is an organism that gets its energy from _______________ instead of from _________ as photoautotrophic plants do.  (Heterotrophs like humans use sugar for energy.)

 

Question 1 __________ is a process that uses chlorophyll molecules to produce high­energy carbohydrates.

Question 2 One of the laws governing the behavior of energy in living things describes energy conversion as inefficient, with much energy being lost in the form of

Question 3 During the electron transfer reactions, protons (H+ ions) are pumped (moved) to one side of the inner membrane of the mitochondrion. The value of this pumping is that the proton gradient is then used

Question 4 If the final end product of a metabolic pathway is continually removed and used elsewhere then

Question 5 The immediate product of photosynthesis, three­carbon PGALs

Question 6 In nature, as energy freely changes from one form to another .

Question 7 On a cold day, your cells depend on ________ to maintain an operating temperature of 37 degrees Celsius.

Question 8 An ATP molecule carries potential energy in the easily broken bond

Question 9 The physicist’s definition of energy is _______________ for use in defining energy changes within a living cell.

Question 10 In a crowded, unventilated room, the temperature rises because

Question 11 DNA was discovered by Friederick Miescher; he isolated it from

Question 12 In photosynthesis the H atoms used to make high­energy carbohydrates like glucose come from

Question 13 A lit match cannot continue to burn when the wood of the match stick is consumed. This statement illustrates the more general principle that

Question 14 A producer organism is called a “producer” because it produces

Question 15 The overall process that uptakes energy­poor molecules (CO2 and H2O) from their reservoirs in nature and converts them into energy­rich molecules is

Question 16 Autotrophic organisms are supportive of man. They

Question 17 New molecules of glucose are produced

Question 18 In respiration, chemical energy is transferred from glucose to ATP. The energy transfer however, is not 100% efficient. In the transfer, some of the energy is lost as

Question 19 ______ is freely convertible from one form to another but _______ can never be created or destroyed.

Question 20 The Krebs cycle’s NADH products are of value because

Question 21 When light of the correct wavelength hits a photosynthetic pigment molecule

Question 22 Accessory pigments and chlorophylls work together within the thylakoid membrane in clusters called __________ . They harvest light energy and use it to transfer electrons to _______________.

Question 23 Metabolic pathways

Question 24 Which of the following is not a product of the Krebs cycle?

Question 25 Which of the following is not a major sort/category of energy change within the cell?

 

Question 1 In the process of ____________, three interrelated, exergonic pathways and oxygen are used to igenerate large amounts of ATP from glucose molecules.

Question 2 Accessory pigments enable the chloroplast to

Question 3 For most chemical reactions in the non­living world, the energy required to break bonds in the reactant molecules

Question 4 Which of the following is a stage of aerobic respiration?

Question 5 If the final end product of a metabolic pathway is continually removed and used elsewhere then

Question 6 The Krebs cycle’s NADH products are of value because

Question 7 The final stage of aerobic respiration involves

Question 8 Griffith exposed weak living bacteria to just the fluids from dead virulent bacteria. Some of these weak bacteria became virulent and could now kill mice. What control experiment did he do to argue that his weak bacteria changed to virulence in these studies?

Question 9 Light dependent reactions are carried out both on and in between photosystems. This process is like the last stage of aerobic respiration in that both

Question 10 Three phosphate groups linked to a ribose sugar which, in turn, is linked to a pyrimidine base known as adenine: this phrase describes the structure of

Question 11 Accessory pigments and chlorophylls work together within the thylakoid membrane in clusters called __________ . They harvest light energy and use it to transfer electrons to _______________.

Question 12 DNA was discovered by Friederick Miescher; he isolated it from

Question 13 Photosynthesis and respiration are complementing processes within a global cycle known as the

Question 14 When activation energy is not available for a given chemical reaction

Question 15 Biological information must exist because

Question 16 A single regulatory molecule can shut down multiple metabolic pathways if it is able to

Question 17 A lit match cannot continue to burn when the wood of the match stick is consumed. This statement illustrates the more general principle that

Question 18 ______ is freely convertible from one form to another but _______ can never be created or destroyed.

Question 19 Light dependent reactions of photosynthesis produce

Question 20 The three metabolic pathways that make up aerobic respiration are really all parts of one larger pathway because

Question 21 The immediate source of electrons for electron transfer phosphorylation is

Question 22 To derive energy from an ATP molecule

Question 23 The process of aerobic respiration begins with

Question 24 New molecules of glucose are produced

Question 25 DNA is stored within the ____________ of a cell in a __________ fiber called chromatin.

 

Question 1 New molecules of glucose are produced

Question 2 Glucose + _________ + 36 ADP yields _________ + 6H2O + 36 _________.

Question 3 The energy storage molecule that connects endergonic and exergonic reactions, driving endergonic reactions forward, is

Question 4 If the final product of a metabolic pathway begins to build up in excess, the pathway can often be slowed down by a process called

Question 5 If the final end product of a metabolic pathway is continually removed and used elsewhere then

Question 6 Reactants like hydrogen and oxygen molecules and are converted into a product like water molecules in the course of

Question 7 The structure of DNA was unraveled using

Question 8 The most energetic and useful product of the Krebs cycle is

Question 9 An endergonic reaction always

Question 10 In photosynthesis the H atoms used to make high­energy carbohydrates like glucose come from

Question 11 DNA is stored within the ____________ of a cell in a __________ fiber called chromatin.

Question 12 ________ organisms build their own energy­rich molecules using solar energy.

Question 13 The cell’s pumping of substances against diffusion forces that would carry those substances the other way is termed

Question 14 Autotrophic organisms are supportive of man. They

Question 15 In photosynthesis, ______ and ______ are used to build_______ and release______.

Question 16 The (gene)tic information in a single strand of DNA is found in

Question 17 Systems that convert energy from one form to another are

Question 18 The immediate product of photosynthesis, three­carbon PGALs

Question 19 Photosynthesis and respiration are complementing processes within a global cycle known as the

Question 20 An excess amount of product accumulates at the end of a metabolic pathway. The product then binds to the allosteric site of the first enzyme along the pathway shutting down the pathway. We call this process

Question 21 The activation energy of a reaction can be lowered if the reaction is catalyzed by

Question 22 Which of the following features of glycolysis is a value to the cell?

Question 23 NADPH is formed when

Question 24 Energy supplied to break bonds in reactant molecules is known as

Question 25 Existing chemical bonds between atoms are broken and new ones are formed between different atoms. This process

Question

Question 1 (1 point)

Which nutrient contains the most calories per gram?

Question 1 options:

A) vitamins

B) lipids

C) carbohydrates

D) protein

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Question 2 (1 point)

Carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids are considered

Question 2 options:

micronutrients

macronutrients

antioxidants

free radicals

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Question 3 (1 point)

Which is a fat-soluble vitamin?

Question 3 options:

calcium

B6

C

D

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Question 4 (1 point)

Which type of research study compares disease rates among population groups, and attempts to identify related conditions or behaviors?

Question 4 options:

placebo

clinical trial

case control

epidemiological

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Question 5 (1 point)

Which is not a “red flag” of inaccurate or exaggerated science?

Question 5 options:

recommendations made to help sell a product

recommendations that promise a quick fix

recommendations from a peer-reviewed journal

simplistic conclusions drawn from a single study

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Question 6 (1 point)

6.The starches and sugars found in grains, vegetables, legumes, and fruits are

Question 6 options:

carbohydrates

lipids

inorganic compounds

phytochemicals

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Question 7 (1 point)

A research study is said to be double-blind if

Question 7 options:

a change that reflects the participants’ expectations is observed

the subject knows that he/she is receiving two treatments during the experiment

neither the subjects nor the investigators know which study group is receiving the placebo

the placebo has two possible effects on the study group

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Question 8 (1 point)

One example of a chemical in food that is not a nutrient is

Question 8 options:

fiber

vitamin C

starch

magnesium

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Question 9 (1 point)

The six classes of nutrients in foods are carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, vitamins, minerals, and water

Question 9 options:

True

False

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Question 10 (1 point)

The study of how different foods can interact with genes to alter a person’s risk of developing a chronic disease is called nutrigenomics

Question 10 options:

True

False

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Question 11 (1 point)

Described as a set of people being studied to evaluate the effect of an event, substance, or technique

Question 11 options:

Correlations

Experimental group

Case control studies

Nutrigenomics

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Question 12 (1 point)

Proteins are organic compounds made of smaller building blocks called

Question 12 options:

Fatty acids

Carbohydrates

Glycerol

Amino Acids

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Question 13 (1 point)

Substances in plants that may possess health-protective effects, even though they are not essential for life

Question 13 options:

Phytochemicals

Antioxidants

Macronutrients

Micronutrients

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Question 14 (1 point)

In a study of how vitamin E may reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease, one group was given a placebo, and the other group was given vitamin E supplements. The group that received the placebo was the

Question 14 options:

control group

experimental group

double-blind group

hypothetical group

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Question 15 (1 point)

Protein, fat, and ___________ are the macronutrients.

Question 15 options:

Lipids

Vitamins

antioxidants

carbohydrates

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Question 16 (1 point)

The _____ are the maximum levels of daily nutrient intakes that are unlikely to pose health risks to almost all individuals in the group for whom they are designed

Question 16 options:

Tolerable Upper Intake Level(s)

The Recommended Daily Allowance

Adequate Intake

Estimated Average Requirements

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Question 17 (1 point)

The nutrient intake level estimated to meet the needs of 50% of the individuals in a life-stage and gender group is known as

Question 17 options:

Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)

Tolerable Upper Intake Level (ULs)

Adequate Intake (AI)

Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)

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Question 18 (1 point)

What components of a food label can help consumers compare the amounts of nutrients in a food to the amount of that nutrient that is recommended for consumption each day?

Question 18 options:

Upper Tolerable Limits

Ingredient List

Daily Values

Recommended Dietary Allowance

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Question 19 (1 point)

Which nutrient is not required to be posted on the Nutrition Facts panel?

Question 19 options:

carbohydrates

fats

water

some selected vitamins such as vitamin A and C

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Question 20 (1 point)

Percent Daily Values (%DV) represent a _______ calorie/day diet.

Question 20 options:

1,500

2,000

2,200

2,500

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Question 21 (1 point)

Ingredients on food labels should be listed in order of

Question 21 options:

highest concentration to lowest concentration

carbohydrates, fats, and proteins

descending order by weight

fats, carbohydrates, and proteins

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Question 22 (1 point)

Health researchers have discovered links between diet and high blood pressure, cancer, and heart disease

Question 22 options:

True

False

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Question 23 (1 point)

Chronic diseases such as heart disease, cancer, stroke, and diabetes have all been linked to over nutrition

Question 23 options:

True

False

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Question 24 (1 point)

Compared to a baked potato, French fries are more nutrient dense.

Question 24 options:

True

False

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Question 25 (1 point)

What best describes the term balance as part of menu planning

Question 25 options:

selecting a variety of foods at each meal

selecting foods that are high in calories only at one meal

planning more of a plant-based diet

consuming enough, but not too much from all of the different food groups

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Question 26 (1 point)

Foods high in nutrient density are those that provide substantial amounts of vitamins and minerals and relatively few calories

Question 26 options:

True

False

Save

Question 27 (1 point)

The following is an example of a health claim:

Adequate calcium and vitamin D along with regular exercise may reduce the risk of osteoporosis

Question 27 options:

True

False

Save

Question 28 (1 point)

The following are all examples of a nutrient content claim for a “free food” on a food label- fat-free, bug-free, sodium –free and calorie-free.

Question 28 options:

True

False

Save

Question 29 (1 point)

Vitamin C prevents scurvy is an example of a structure/function claim.

Question 29 options:

True

False

Save

Question 30 (1 point)

The three types of claims allowed on a food label or dietary supplement are nutrient content claims, health claims and cures of disease claims

Question 30 options:

True

False

Save

Question 31 (1 point)

A food that may provide a health benefit beyond basic nutrition is known as a

Question 31 options:

free radical

functional food

direct additive

indirect additive

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Question 32 (1 point)

What best describes a short-lived, highly reactive chemical that can have detrimental effects on cells?

Question 32 options:

free radical

functional food

direct additive

indirect additive

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Question 33 (1 point)

A substance continually produced in our cells that, over time, may cause damage to DNA and other important cell structures is known as a

Question 33 options:

free radical

functional food

direct additive

indirect additive

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Question 34 (1 point)

Substances in plants that help resist the attacks of bacteria and fungi, the ravages of free radicals, and increased levels of ultraviolet light from the sun are

Question 34 options:

free radicals

phytochemicals

indirect additives

alternative medicine

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Question 35 (1 point)

Substances added to foods for a specific purpose are called _____________.

Question 35 options:

supplements

direct additives

phytochemicals

free radicals

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Question 36 (1 point)

Calcium-fortified orange juice, breakfast cereal fortified with folic acid, and yogurt with live active cultures are all examples of

Question 36 options:

foods enhanced with functional ingredients

examples of regulatory issues for functional foods

examples of indirect additives

all of the above are true

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Question 37 (1 point)

The therapeutic use of herbs and other plants to promote health and treat disease is called

Question 37 options:

Herbal therapy (phytotherapy)

Megadosing

Macrobiotic dieting

Orthomolecular medicine

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Question 38 (1 point)

Lycopene is commonly found in

Question 38 options:

garlic

tomato sauce

yogurt

toothpaste

Save

Question 39 (1 point)

True or False? Garlic contains sulfur compounds that may increase heart disease risk.

Question 39 options:

True

False

Save

Question 40 (1 point)

True or False? Phytochemicals are complex plant chemicals that are essential for human life.

Question 40 options:

True

False

Save

Question 41 (1 point)

True or False? Structure/function claims must be based on a food’s nutritive value.

Question 41 options:

True

False

Save

Question 42 (1 point)

True or False? Health care professionals often discourage moderate nutrient supplementation for people with elevated nutrient needs.

Question 42 options:

True

False

Save

Question 43 (1 point)

True or False? Phytochemicals help neutralize free radicals.

Question 43 options:

True

False

Save

Question 44 (1 point)

True or False? Dietary supplements can include vitamins, minerals, animo acids, carotenoids, bioflavonoids, and probiotics.

Question 44 options:

True

False

Save

Question 45 (1 point)

True or False? Under FDA guidelines, a functional food’s label may have a nutrient content claim, health claim, or structure/function claim.

Question 45 options:

True

False

Save

Question 46 (1 point)

True or False? A structure/function claim describes the link between a nutrient and a deficiency disease, and can base claims on their own review and interpretation of the scientific literature

Question 46 options:

True

False

Save

Question 47 (1 point)

True or False? Like food labels, supplement labels have both mandatory and optional information

Question 47 options:

True

False

Save

Question 48 (1 point)

True or False? Excesses of some nutrients can create deficits of other nutrients.

Question 48 options:

True

False

Save

Question 49 (1 point)

Soybeans and soy products are a good source of the two isoflavonesdaidzein and genistein.

Question 49 options:

True

False

Save

Question 50 (1 point)

Two useful questions to ask when you visit a health information Web site are:

1) Who runs the site?

2) Why have they created the site?

Question 50 options:

True

False

Save

Week Four Quiz
Chapter 9 Muscular System: Histology and Physiology________________________________________

1. Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscle?
a. body movement

b. maintenance of posture

c. respiration

d. constriction of organs

e. production of heat
2. Which of the following is true?
a. Skeletal muscle is capable of spontaneous contraction.

b. Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs.

c. Cardiac muscle cells have multiple nuclei.

d. Smooth muscle cells are long and cylindrical.

e. There is a small amount of smooth muscle in the heart.
3. Which type of muscle tissue has cells that branch?
a. skeletal muscle

b. smooth muscle

c. cardiac muscle

d. both skeletal and cardiac muscle

e. both cardiac and smooth muscle
4. Hypertrophy of skeletal muscles from weight lifting is caused by an increase in the
a. number of muscle fibers.

b. size of muscle fibers.

c. number of striations.

d. number of nuclei within the muscle fibers.

e. number of muscle cells.
5. Actin myofilaments
a. resemble bundles of minute golf clubs.

b. contain both myosin and tropomyosin.

c. are held in place by the M line.

d. contain strands of fibrous actin.

e. are the thickest proteins in muscle.
6. When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal,
a. calcium ions diffuse into the presynaptic terminal through voltage-gated ion channels.

b. acetylcholine moves into the presynaptic terminal.

c. a local potential is generated in the presynaptic terminal.

d. ligand-gated ion channels in the presynaptic terminal are opened.

e. nothing else happens.
7. In excitation-contraction coupling,
a. calcium ions must bind with myosin to expose active sites on actin.

b. myosin heads bind to exposed active sites on actin.

c. cross-bridges form between myosin heads and calcium ions.

d. movement of the troponin-tropomyosin complex causes actin myofilaments to slide.

e. ATP binds to actin myofilaments.
8. Which of the following helps explain the increased tension seen in multiple wave summation?
a. increased motor unit recruitment

b. increased concentration of calcium ions around the myofibrils

c. exposure of more active sites on myosin myofilaments

d. the breakdown of elastic elements in the cell

e. decreased stimulus frequency
9. An isotonic contraction is described as
a. action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs.

b. a muscle produces constant tension during contraction.

c. a muscle produces an increasing tension during contraction.

d. a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens.

e. a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.
10. Which type of respiration occurs in the mitochondria?
a. anaerobic respiration

b. aerobic respiration

c. both anaerobic and aerobic respiration
Chapter 10 Muscular System: Gross Anatomy________________________________________

1. The sternocleidomastoid muscle extends from the mastoid process of the temporal bone to the sternum and medial clavicle. When both sternocleidomastoid muscles contract, the head is flexed. The end of the muscle that connects to the sternum is the
a. origin.

b. belly.

c. body.

d. insertion.

e. fixator.

2. Which of the following represents a class I lever system?
a. crossing your legs

b. hyperextension of the head

c. standing on your tiptoes

d. flexion of the elbow to elevate the hand

e. lifting weight with your arm

3. In order to stabilize the hyoid so that the larynx can be elevated in swallowing, the _____ muscle group is used.
a. Pterygoid

b. Infrahyoid

c. Auricularis

d. Suprahyoid

e. Hyoglossus

4. If abdominal muscles are contracted while the vertebral column is fixed this will aid in
a. vomiting.

b. childbirth.

c. urination.

d. defecation.

e. All of these choices are correct.

5. Which muscle will depress the scapula or elevate the ribs?
a. levator scapulae

b. serratus anterior

c. pectoralis minor

d. subclavius

e. rhomboideus major
6. Which of the following muscles extends the forearm and has its insertion on the ulna?
a. Deltoid

b. biceps brachii

c. triceps brachii

d. Brachialis

e. Coracobrachialis

7. The gluteus maximus
a. does most of the work in “sit-ups.”

b. accounts for a sprinter’s stance.

c. allows one to sit cross-legged.

d. is used in the knee-jerk reflex.

e. is a common site for injections.
8. Label muscle “A” on the diagram.
a. orbicularis oculi

b. temporalis

c. Trapezius

d. Sternocleidomastoid

e. masseter
9. Label muscle “A” on the diagram.
a. linea alba

b. serratus anterior

c. rectus abdominis

d. external oblique

e. internal oblique
10. What does “A” represent?
a. Coracobrachialis

b. Deltoid

c. pectoralis major

d. biceps brachii

 

Week Four Quiz
Chapter 9 Muscular System: Histology and Physiology________________________________________

1. Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscle?
a. body movement

b. maintenance of posture

c. respiration

d. constriction of organs

e. production of heat
2. Which of the following is true?
a. Skeletal muscle is capable of spontaneous contraction.

b. Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs.

c. Cardiac muscle cells have multiple nuclei.

d. Smooth muscle cells are long and cylindrical.

e. There is a small amount of smooth muscle in the heart.
3. Which type of muscle tissue has cells that branch?
a. skeletal muscle

b. smooth muscle

c. cardiac muscle

d. both skeletal and cardiac muscle

e. both cardiac and smooth muscle
4. Hypertrophy of skeletal muscles from weight lifting is caused by an increase in the
a. number of muscle fibers.

b. size of muscle fibers.

c. number of striations.

d. number of nuclei within the muscle fibers.

e. number of muscle cells.
5. Actin myofilaments
a. resemble bundles of minute golf clubs.

b. contain both myosin and tropomyosin.

c. are held in place by the M line.

d. contain strands of fibrous actin.

e. are the thickest proteins in muscle.
6. When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal,
a. calcium ions diffuse into the presynaptic terminal through voltage-gated ion channels.

b. acetylcholine moves into the presynaptic terminal.

c. a local potential is generated in the presynaptic terminal.

d. ligand-gated ion channels in the presynaptic terminal are opened.

e. nothing else happens.
7. In excitation-contraction coupling,
a. calcium ions must bind with myosin to expose active sites on actin.

b. myosin heads bind to exposed active sites on actin.

c. cross-bridges form between myosin heads and calcium ions.

d. movement of the troponin-tropomyosin complex causes actin myofilaments to slide.

e. ATP binds to actin myofilaments.
8. Which of the following helps explain the increased tension seen in multiple wave summation?
a. increased motor unit recruitment

b. increased concentration of calcium ions around the myofibrils

c. exposure of more active sites on myosin myofilaments

d. the breakdown of elastic elements in the cell

e. decreased stimulus frequency
9. An isotonic contraction is described as
a. action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs.

b. a muscle produces constant tension during contraction.

c. a muscle produces an increasing tension during contraction.

d. a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens.

e. a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.
10. Which type of respiration occurs in the mitochondria?
a. anaerobic respiration

b. aerobic respiration

c. both anaerobic and aerobic respiration
Chapter 10 Muscular System: Gross Anatomy________________________________________

1. The sternocleidomastoid muscle extends from the mastoid process of the temporal bone to the sternum and medial clavicle. When both sternocleidomastoid muscles contract, the head is flexed. The end of the muscle that connects to the sternum is the
a. origin.

b. belly.

c. body.

d. insertion.

e. fixator.

2. Which of the following represents a class I lever system?
a. crossing your legs

b. hyperextension of the head

c. standing on your tiptoes

d. flexion of the elbow to elevate the hand

e. lifting weight with your arm

3. In order to stabilize the hyoid so that the larynx can be elevated in swallowing, the _____ muscle group is used.
a. Pterygoid

b. Infrahyoid

c. Auricularis

d. Suprahyoid

e. Hyoglossus

4. If abdominal muscles are contracted while the vertebral column is fixed this will aid in
a. vomiting.

b. childbirth.

c. urination.

d. defecation.

e. All of these choices are correct.

5. Which muscle will depress the scapula or elevate the ribs?
a. levator scapulae

b. serratus anterior

c. pectoralis minor

d. subclavius

e. rhomboideus major
6. Which of the following muscles extends the forearm and has its insertion on the ulna?
a. Deltoid

b. biceps brachii

c. triceps brachii

d. Brachialis

e. Coracobrachialis

7. The gluteus maximus
a. does most of the work in “sit-ups.”

b. accounts for a sprinter’s stance.

c. allows one to sit cross-legged.

d. is used in the knee-jerk reflex.

e. is a common site for injections.
8. Label muscle “A” on the diagram.
a. orbicularis oculi

b. temporalis

c. Trapezius

d. Sternocleidomastoid

e. masseter
9. Label muscle “A” on the diagram.
a. linea alba

b. serratus anterior

c. rectus abdominis

d. external oblique

e. internal oblique
10. What does “A” represent?
a. Coracobrachialis

b. Deltoid

c. pectoralis major

d. biceps brachii

e. serratus anterior