Day: April 27, 2018

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Which of the following statements about the Domain Bacteria is TRUE?
A) Bacteria are able to increase their genetic variability by reproducing sexually.
B) Bacteria are multicellular microbes.
C) Chloroplasts are found in photosynthetic bacteria.
D) Bacteria lack membrane-bound organelles.
E) Bacterial endospores are fragile structures that are easily destroyed.
2) In bacteria, the small, circular pieces of DNA that are located outside the chromosome are called
A) flagella.
B) bacteriophages.
C) sex pili.
D) plasmids.
E) endospores.
3) The mutations that improve the survival and reproduction of organisms, and thus contribute to
the evolution of species, arise rapidly in prokaryotes due to their
A) rapid rates of cell division.
B) anaerobic metabolism.
C) sexual reproduction.
D) cell wall composition.
E) absence of a nucleus.
4) The use of bacteria to break down pollutants is referred to as
A) nitrogen-fixation.
B) binary fission.
C) biofixation.
D) bioremediation.
E) biosynthesis.
5) Disease-causing bacteria are called
A) Archaea.
B) cyanobacteria.
C) pathogens.
D) protozoa.
E) viroids.
6) Which Protist causes a sexually transmitted disease?
A) Trichomonas
B) Trypanosoma
C) Giardia
D) Plasmodium
E) Pfiesteria
7) Which of the following is FALSE?
A) Viruses are smaller than bacteria.
B) Viruses are not living organisms.
C) Antibiotics cannot prevent or treat viral diseases.
D) The genetic material of viruses is not contained in a nucleus.
E) Viruses are classified in the domain Archaea.
8) A virus basically consists of
A) RNA or DNA and a membrane.
B) enzymes and a protein coat.
C) RNA or DNA and enzymes.
D) RNA or DNA and a protein coat.
E) proteins and a cell membrane.
9) Viroids
A) attack bacteria.
B) are infectious pieces of DNA enclosed in a protein coat.
C) are infectious chains of amino acids.
D) are infectious pieces of RNA.
E) have a plasma membrane.
10) Are viruses alive or are they just biologically active chemicals? Explain your reasoning.

TRUE/FALSE. Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.

11) The Kingdom Protista is a group that can best be defined as “any eukaryote that is not a plant, animal, or fungus.” True or False?

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
12) Phytoplankton are very important to the aquatic ecosystems because they
A) produce glucose.
B) produce oxygen.
C) absorb carbon dioxide.
D) All of the above are true.
E) None of the above are true.
13) Individuals of which protist group can grow hundreds of feet long, and almost half a foot per
day?
A) brown algae
B) cyanobacteria
C) slime molds
D) phytoplankton
E) water molds
14) Which of the following is considered to be most closely related to the plants?
A) green algae
B) slime molds
C) diatoms
D) brown algae
E) euglenids
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
15) What would life on Earth be like today, had eukaryotic protists not evolved?
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
16) Fungal hyphae usually are
A) diploid.

B) haploid.

c. triploid
d. n + n
17) The haploid, single-celled product of mitosis is
A) sporophyte
B) gametophyte
C) zygote
D) spore
E) gamete
18) Claviceps purpurea is an organism from phylum ________. It infects rye plants and produces
toxins (including LSD) that can produce convulsions, hallucinations, and death if consumed by
a person.
A) Ascomycota
B) Chytriiomycota
C) Deuteromycota
D) Zygomycota
E) Basidiomycota
19) If a strong fungicide is released and eliminates all the fungi in an ecosystem, which of the
following is likely to happen?
A) an accumulation of dead and discarded plant and animal tissues
B) increased rate of photosynthesis
C) faster breakdown of leaf litter
D) improved soil fertility
E) improved growth of plant species
20) A gametophyte is
A) haploid.
B) diploid.
C) triploid.
D) tetraploid.
E) unable to survive.
21) The first cell after fertilization is the
A) sporophyte.
B) spore.
C) zygote.
D) seed.
E) embryo.
22) Bryophytes
A) are mosses and liverworts.
B) have poorly developed conducting tissues.
C) lack true roots and leaves.
D) A and B
E) all of the above
23) Ginkgoes are classified as a/an
A) bryophyte.

B) gymnosperm.
C) seedless vascular plant.

D) angiosperm.
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
24) Explain the difference between an angiosperm seed and a gymnosperm seed.

25) If motility is considered a characteristic of animals, why are stationary creatures like
sponges and crinoids still considered to be animals?

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
26) Between the organs and the body wall, complex animals have a body cavity called a
A) cnidarian.
B) coelom.
C) mesoderm.
D) thorax.
E) mesoglea.
27) Which of the following characteristics is associated with all animals that are bilaterally
symmetrical at some point in the life cycle?
A) coelom
B) mesoderm
C) cephalization
D) lack of organs
E) gastrovascular cavity
28) Segmentation is important in the evolution of animals because
A) it allows them to be bigger.
B) it increases the number of tissue layers present.
C) it allows for specialization of function.
D) A and B
E) B and C
29) How can flatworms survive without a respiratory system?
A) They are flat, allowing diffusion of gases directly to and from cells.
B) They are small, allowing diffusion of gases directly to and from cells.
C) They are not very metabolically active, and there is no need for a more efficient means of
gas exchange.
D) They have a thin, moist covering that facilitates gas exchange.
E) All of these are true.
30) The taxonomic group containing the largest and most intelligent invertebrates is
A) Aves.
B) Cephalopoda.
C) Uniramia.
D) Gastropoda.
E) Chordata.
31) Which of the following phyla contains animals that reproduce asexually?
A) Platyhelminthes
B) Nematoda
C) Mollusca
D) Cnidaria
E) Annelida
32) The leeches used by doctors to prevent blood clotting and stimulate blood vessel growth in
patients recovering from reconstructive surgery are members of the phylum
A) Cnidaria.
B) Platyhelminthes.
C) Annelida.
D) Nematoda.
E) Arthropoda.
33) All chordates have ________.
A) pharyngeal gill slits
B) bilateral symmetry
C) a fully lined body cavity
D) a dorsal, hollow nerve cord
E) all of the above
34) Which of the following features do humans share with other chordates?
A) Humans have a nerve cord.
B) Humans develop a tail in early development.
C) Humans develop a notochord in early development.
D) Humans develop gill slits in early development.
E) Humans have all of these features.
35) Mammals have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
A) mammary glands.
B) hair.
C) lungs.
D) a four-chambered heart.
E) All of the above are mammalian characteristics.
36) A fish with fins containing rod-shaped bones surrounded by muscle is a(n)
A) hagfish.
B) lobe-finned fish.
C) lamprey.
D) shark.
E) ray-finned fish.
37) Monotremes differ from other mammals in that they
A) have nipples.
B) have hair.
C) lay eggs.
D) have a four-chambered heart.
E) do not produce milk.
38) ________ are the mammals with the most number of species.
A) Bats
B) Rodents
C) Primates
D) Whales
E) Marsupials
39) After eating at the new Mexican restaurant in town, you develop a mild case of food poisoning. Consequently, you never go back there again to eat. This is an example of
A) trial and error learning.

B) habituation.
C) operant conditioning.

D) insight learning.
40) Innate animal behavior is
A) nonadaptive.
B) learned.
C) not under genetic control.
D) instinctive.
E) both learned and instinctive.
41) A decline in response to a harmless, repeated stimulus is called
A) imprinting.
B) a sensitive period.
C) insight learning.
D) instinctive behavior.
E) habituation.
42) A worm learns to associate a flash of light with an electric shock by
A) operant conditioning.
B) insight learning.
C) imprinting.
D) habituation.
E) trial and error learning.
43) Normal fruit fly larvae move away from their food after eating. However, some larvae that were subjected to X-rays remain near or in their food after eating. There is a consistent difference in the DNA of these two types of larvae. What can be concluded about this behavior?
A) It appears to have a genetic component but is altered by experience.
B) It appears to be entirely learned.
C) It has a clear genetic component.
D) Nothing can be concluded about this behavior from the information provided.
44) What advantage does sound communication have over visual communication?
A) It is more quickly perceived.
B) It uses less energy.
C) It is not as likely to attract predators.
D) It can communicate better the degree of an animal’s readiness for a particular behavior.
E) It can be transmitted over distances even when physical barriers exist.
45) All the following are pheromones EXCEPT
A) sex attractants produced by Japanese beetles.
B) light emitted by fireflies.
C) queen substance produced by honeybees.
D) urine used by wolves to mark territories.
E) trail substances produced by ants.
46) Territoriality
A) results in every individual in a population successfully breeding.
B) decreases aggression within a population.
C) increases the size of a population.
D) All are correct.
E) B and C are correct.
47) Human facial expressions in response to various emotions
A) vary according to race.
B) vary tremendously from culture to culture.
C) are remarkably similar among different cultures.
D) vary according to age.
E) vary according to sex.
48) Studies of identical human twins have shown that
A) they exhibit vastly different behavioral traits if raised in different environments.
B) they do not live as long as fraternal twins live.
C) their genes appear to have a great deal of influence on their behavior.
D) they are no more alike than are fraternal twins.
E) behavior does not depend on the types of genes present.
49) A hungry newborn human infant, touched on the side of her mouth, will turn her head and
attempt to suckle. This example of behavior is
A) not under genetic control.
B) nonadaptive.
C) instinctive.
D) learned.
E) a combination of all the above choices.
50) Behaviors that we call “play”
A) are only observed in humans.

B) never occur in adults.
C) can be dangerous.

D) cannot be adaptive.

Liberty University BIOL 101 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers key

6 different versions

The nervous system interacts with the ___________ system to coordinate the internal integration of all the other body systems together.

The most common molecule in blood is:

Which structure within the brain has the role of generating emotions?

Signals from the nervous system cause muscles to contract. Such contraction only happens properly because the muscle cell membrane

Fluoxetine HCl affects synapses by

The role of the hepatic portal system is to:

Which of the following types of tissue helps to keep both our blood pressure regulated and our digestive processes effective?

Which of the following brain regions and their functions are improperly matched?

Which of the following is a type of neuron that receives a stimulus and transmits it to the central nervous system?

Which is not a sign or symptom of inflammation?

Your adaptive immune response has all of the following characteristics except that it is not

Which of the following is part of the human digestive system, correctly matched to the role it plays in the digestion process?

As a student runs up a flight of stairs, her integumentary system serves her by

The hepatic portal vein forms from capillary beds in ______________ and leads to a second set of capillary beds in ______________.

The function of the ureter is to

The calcium-binding protein in smooth muscle is _______; while the calcium-binding protein in skeletal muscle is ______.

The structure of a human neuron is made up of a

In the human immune system, the three general lines of defense are

As a student runs up a flight of stairs, the first system needed to support the activities of the muscular system would be the _________ system.

The function of the urinary bladder is to

In the basic structure of the human heart, blood first flows through the right atrium, then it travels to the:

Systolic blood pressure:

The most difficult aspect of evolving cell populations that can use ATP molecules in three different ways (as an energy source, a nucleic acid monomer, and a neurotransmitter) is

Cranial and spinal nerves of the peripheral nervous system serve

Alcohol has a pleasure-sensation-promoting effect in the synaptic cleft as a result of its ability to

What is the difference between a chemical gradient and an electrical gradient?

In the human immune system, the first line of defense includes

The pulmonary circulation

All of the following are systems of the body except

Tropomyosin’s role in muscle contraction is to

The elements in blood that carry oxygen are the

Which arrangement of organs represents the order in which food passes through the digestive system

Ion channels

Natural killer cells

Which body system is least likely to be directly involved with controlling levels of blood

Which of the following systems in the human body returns fluid from the body’s tissues to the general circulation and the heart

After blood flows through the left atrium, it travels to the

The left ventricle of the heart is larger because

In the human body, increased melatonin levels

A plant growing toward a source of light is exhibiting ____________ response.

Learning behavior differs from instinctive behavior in that learned behavior

As the tools we study are discovered to be highly responsive it becomes reasonable to assume that

An optimal site from which the hormone leptin should originate:

When an environmental change shifts an organism’s internal chemistry toward a new state, the organism’s response is to try to return its chemistry toward the original state. This tendency on the organism’s part is called

After a fly trips the sensory hair on the modified leaf of a Venus fly trap, what is the very next step in the closing process?

A plant’s response to directional light results in

In the human body, decreasing melatonin levels

How does a Venus fly trap close? Once expansin has weakened the cellulose in the walls of the leaf trap cells,

In the Venus Fly trap, how does the enzyme expansin help to close the trap?

A white-crowned sparrow taken from anywhere in the world will sing

The suprachiasmatic nuclei enable the nervous system to respond to daily light/dark alterations through their stimulation of

The sequence of events in how a Venus fly trap closes is:

If a behavioral response to a given kind of stimulus changes with time the response is probably an example of

If a bog plant designed to catch insects proves unable to do so, the result will be

Homeostasis can be described as:

The human nervous system responds to daily alterations in light and darkness by

One effect of melatonin on the suprachiasmatic nuclei is that it

In the human body, melatonin supplementation is thought to help overcome the effects of

Peter Marler’s controlled experiments demonstrate learning in white-crowned sparrows. The learning is evidenced in their ability to

Which of the following is a molecular response by a cell to the hormone indole-3-acetic acid?

Which of the following is a molecular response a cell makes to the hormone indole-3- acetic acid?

In response to the hormone indole-3-acetic acid, a cell

In the lactose operon of E.coli, how does the repressor protein change its shape?

If a plant is in the shade and fails to grow in the direction of the sunlight nearby, it

In animals, a specific hormone

As opposed to instinctive behaviors, learned behaviors

Pick the false statement concerning auxins

Select the false statement:    Melatonin has been found to

When the lactose operon is shut down

In the lactose operon of E.coli, how does the repressor protein turn on and off

Some of the members of the traditional medical community are reluctant to endorse melatonin as a dietary supplement because

If a white-crowned sparrow was sound isolated and exposed at the critical song formation time to two widely geographically separated songs of its own species, resulting in a mixed dialect, it would

If you came upon a half-buried red latex ball at the beach, which of its features would most lead you to suspect that it was a designed thing, not an evolved thing

How could we show that the suprachiasmatic nuclei control wakefulness and body temperature with a periodicity of 25 hours independent of the daily cycling of light

 

Question 1 The function of the urinary bladder is to

Question 2 The function of the urethra is to

Question 3 The function of the kidney is

Question 4 The ___________ lining your bronchial passages entrain microbes carrying them away to your acid­laden stomach where they will die.

Question 5 As a student runs up a flight of stairs, her integumentary system serves her by

Question 6 The role of the ___________ branch of the autonomic nervous system mediates control of organ processes when the body is essentially ______.

Question 7 The calcium­binding protein in smooth muscle is _______; while the calcium­binding protein in skeletal muscle is ______.

Question 8 Macrophages seek out foreign invaders in the ______________, while neutrophils, at least initially are on patrol in the ___________.

Question 9 The entire human nervous system is organized into the central nervous system and the _______ nervous system.

Question 10 Which structure within the brain has the role of generating emotions?

Question 11 The hepatic portal vein forms from capillary beds in ______________ and leads to a second set of capillary beds in ______________.

Question 12 Fluoxetine HCl affects synapses by

Question 13 Neither B lymphocytes nor T lymphocytes are able by themselves to respond to foreign antigen. They must at some point be induced to proliferate (divide) by

Question 14 Which of the following brain regions and their functions are improperly matched?

Question 15 Which of the following is part of the human digestive system, correctly matched to the role it plays in the digestion process?

Question 16 A muscle is composed of thousands of muscle cells (fibers) bound into groups of 100 or more fibers call __________ each of which is surrounded by _________ tissue called perimysium.

Question 17 Which of the following is not an element of the spinal reflex arc?

Question 18 All of the following are systems of the body except the:

Question 19 Which of the following processes is involved in muscle contraction?

Question 20 Which of the following is part of the human digestive system, correctly matched to the role it plays in the digestion process?

Question 21 Caffeine affects synapses by

Question 22 The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide, and of nutrients and cell wastes occurs principally in the

Question 23 In the human immune system, the three general lines of defense are

Question 24 Cranial and spinal nerves of the peripheral nervous system serve

Question 25 The most common molecule in blood is:

 

Question 1 The structure of a human neuron uniquely and perfectly fits it for its signal­carrying role. The neuron is

Question 2 Cranial and spinal nerves of the peripheral nervous system serve

Question 3 The function of the ureter is to

Question 4 What is the name of a contractile unit of a muscle?

Question 5 The entire human nervous system is organized into the central nervous system and the _______ nervous system.

Question 6 Neither B lymphocytes nor T lymphocytes are able by themselves to respond to foreign antigen. They must at some point be induced to proliferate (divide) by

Question 7 Which of the following is part of the human digestive system, correctly matched to the role it plays in the digestion process?

Question 8 Systolic blood pressure:

Question 9 Which of the following systems of the body interact with the nervous system?

Question 10 When a vaccine is given to a person with a healthy immune system, the result is

Question 11 Which of the following is part of the human digestive system, correctly matched to the role it plays in the digestion process?

Question 12 The nervous system interacts with the ___________ system to coordinate the internal integration of all the other body systems together.

Question 13 Which structure within the brain has the role of generating emotions?

Question 14 Macrophages seek out foreign invaders in the ______________, while neutrophils, at least initially are on patrol in the ___________.

Question 15 Which of the following is not an element of the spinal reflex arc?

Question 16 The role of the hepatic portal system is to:

Question 17 Which is not a sign or symptom of inflammation?

Question 18 The efferent or motor branch of the peripheral nervous system is subdivided into the ______ (voluntary) and ____________ (involuntary) nervous systems.

Question 19 The calcium­binding protein in smooth muscle is _______; while the calcium­binding protein in skeletal muscle is ______.

Question 20 The hepatic portal vein forms from capillary beds in ______________ and leads to a second set of capillary beds in ______________.

Question 21 Which of the following is a type of neuron that receives a stimulus and transmits it to the central nervous system?

Question 22 Which of the following types of tissue helps to keep both our blood pressure regulated and our digestive processes effective?

Question 23 A muscle is composed of thousands of muscle cells (fibers) bound into groups of 100 or more fibers call __________ each of which is surrounded by _________ tissue called perimysium.

Question 24 Which of the following processes is involved in muscle contraction?

Question 25 The function of the kidney is

 

Question 1 Which of the following systems of the body interact with the nervous system?

Question 2 The role of the hepatic portal system is to:

Question 3 As a student runs up a flight of stairs, her integumentary system serves her by

Question 4 Which of the following processes is involved in muscle contraction?

Question 5 The efferent or motor branch of the peripheral nervous system is subdivided into the ______ (voluntary) and ____________ (involuntary) nervous systems.

Question 6 Which of the following is part of the human digestive system, correctly matched to the role it plays in the digestion process?

Question 7 The ___________ lining your bronchial passages entrain microbes carrying them away to your acid­laden stomach where they will die.

Question 8 The function of the ureter is to

Question 9 Macrophages seek out foreign invaders in the ______________, while neutrophils, at least initially are on patrol in the ___________.

Question 10 Which of the following is part of the human digestive system, correctly matched to the role it plays in the digestion process?

Question 11 As a student runs up a flight of stairs, the first system needed to support the activities of the muscular system would be the _________ system.

Question 12 The function of the urethra is to

Question 13 The most common molecule in blood is:

Question 14 Which of the following is part of the human digestive system, correctly matched to the role it plays in the digestion process?

Question 15 Caffeine affects synapses by

Question 16 A muscle is composed of thousands of muscle cells (fibers) bound into groups of 100 or more fibers call __________ each of which is surrounded by _________ tissue called perimysium.

Question 17 What is the name of a contractile unit of a muscle?

Question 18 The function of the urinary bladder is to

Question 19 Systolic blood pressure:

Question 20 Which of the following is not an element of the spinal reflex arc?

Question 21 The structure of a human neuron uniquely and perfectly fits it for its signal­carrying role. The neuron is

Question 22 All of the following are systems of the body except the:

Question 23 Which structure within the brain has the role of generating emotions?

Question 24 The entire human nervous system is organized into the central nervous system and the _______ nervous system.

Question 25 Which of the following brain regions and their functions are improperly matched?

Liberty University BIOL 101 quiz 6 complete solutions correct answers key

7 different versions

The following is a list of methods by which human conception can be postponed. Which one blocks sperm on its journey from the testicles to the fallopian tubes?

The quintessential (most basic/most important) moment of fertilization of the egg by the sperm cell occurs when

Sperm cell production occurs within the interior lining of the ______________.

Which of the following is a biological approach to determining when a mother and her conceptus become separate individuals?

About the time of ____________, male genetic information from the sperm begins to be translated into protein products. This is used by some to determine when a mother and her conceptus become separate individuals.

Once the mature follicle is the correct size, the estrogen level in the bloodstream causes the pituitary gland to suddenly secrete high levels of _________ causing the mature follicle to rupture from the ovary surface.

For about half of a woman’s monthly cycle, the hormone ________ leaves the pituitary gland and, at the ovary, signals it to bring a more advanced _________ to complete maturity.

Penetration of the egg’ zona pellucida by the sperm cell is a process driven by

The reproductive system uses the hormones ________ and (later on) ____________ to “think ahead”. They guide the preparation of the uterus for its role in supporting pregnancy.

A mature follicle has formed which of the following structures?

In the human life cycle, diploid cells undergo a cell division process called __________. The resulting haploid cells later fuse during ___________ which regenerates diploid cells.

One disadvantage of sexual reproduction is

Which of the following is an example of asexual reproduction in plants?

Meiotic Prophase I is different from a mitotic prophase. In meiotic prophase

The process of meiosis generates genetic variability in the resulting sex cells (gametes). It does this by

The stage of meiosis in which the centromere of each chromosome can first be seen to be attached to two sister chromatids:

Dilation of the cervix is a chemical procedure that

Which of the following different methods by which human conception can be postponed involves altering the hormonal chemistry of the female partner?

The stages of meiosis are

In Iris plants asexual reproduction results from

Which of the following birth control methods is primarily contraceptive and secondarily abortive in its effects?

Aristotle, the “Father of Biology”, believed that a human being became a person

Meiosis generates genetic variability in the resulting sex cells (gametes). For each of 23 pairs of chromosomes, the haploid egg cell

Peter Singer and other self-oriented societal pragmatists would define the term “person” as someone who

The specialized process that halves the number of chromosomes during sex cell formation is named

What process prevents one’s children from looking exactly like either parent?

If 100 sperm cells reach an egg, how does the egg respond such that only one sperm cell effectively fertilizes it?  As soon as a sperm cell touches the egg’s plasma membrane

Which sequence below traces in the correct order the path of a sperm to the egg it fertilizes

Which cell division in meiosis is most like mitosis

How long does it normally take from the time of fertilization to the time of gestation

Which male accessory gland of the male reproductive system provides protection for sperm while in the harsh acidic female reproductive tract

What is the role of luteinizing hormone (LH) in human reproduction

Primary germ cells migrate through ________ different regions of embryonic tissue before reaching their final site of differentiation within ovaries or testes

How does a primary spermatocyte differ from a primary germ cell?  Primary germ cells

Which birth control method is potentially abortive, rather than purely contraceptive

In order for “sexuality” to evolve between two strains of an asexual unicellular organism, a mutation that should occur early in the process would be one that causes

Which of the following factors accounts for most of the propulsion needed for a sperm to meet up with an egg

Preformationism was the belief that an entire human being, perfectly formed but far smaller could almost be seen within the confines of the sperm cell.  Which aspect of development is most ignored or minimized

Which of the following body systems are not significantly integrated into the process of sexual reproduction

In order for an asexually reproducing organism to evolve the ability to reproduce sexually, what attribute(s) would need to be acquired by mutation and selection

In the case of incomplete dominance, the combinations of alleles AA, Aa or aa can result in how many different phenotypes?

In the phenotype of an individual, a dominant allele

During meiosis I, both the two homologous chromosome pairs and the pairs of Mendelian alleles

In the cross between individuals having genotypes Aa and aa, how many kinds of offspring can emerge from this cross?

In a dihybrid cross the breeder is studying two _______ at a time.

In the karyotype of Drosophila melanogaster and most other organisms as well, the pairs of chromosomes not involved in determining the sex of the organism are called

In Mendel’s approach to plant breeding he was a(n) ___________; this term indicates that his questions were answered by good observations and experiments.

When male and female flies are crossed to each other, the X chromosome that is in half of the male fly’s sex cells (sperm)

During the formation of an individual’s sex cells, pairs of alleles come apart. This principle is

Which of the following choices would best describe the phenotype of a Bb individual?

If two genes are linked they will

Which of the following choices would best describe the genotype of a Bb individual?

Mendel’s experimental approach to plant breeding resulted in

In epistasis, the phenotype produced by the alleles of one gene locus

In sex cell formation, Mendel’s second law (independent assortment) works because

In a cross between individuals of genotype TtYy and ttyy, sex cells from the ttyy individual will all have t and y alleles. So they will reveal whatever alleles are present in any sex cell coming from the other parent—whether TY, tY, Ty or ty. So, how many different phenotypes can result from this cross? (TtYy X ttyy)

A bb individual is ___________ for a __________ allele.

Mendel’s view of plant breeding that resulted in the discovery of his laws could best be described by the principle

In the phenomenon of co-dominance in blood types, two or more different alleles are ___________ while another allele is ____________ because it is not expressed at all.

The karyotype of Drosophila melanogaster contains 4 pairs of homologous ___________.

In pea plants, the allele controlling tallness (T) is completely dominant over its alternative allele controlling shortness (t). Which of the following crosses will yield short (tt) and heterozygous tall (Tt) pea plants in approximately equal numbers?

Mendel’s approach to plant breeding resulted in the discovery of his laws because he

When two individuals, both with genotype RrYy are crossed to each other, all possible genotypic combinations are produced in the offspring: RRYY, RRYy, RRyy, RrYY, RrYy, Rryy, rrYY, rrYy and rryy. Score each genotype’s phenotype to determine how many visible kinds of offspring–phenotypes—do these 9 genotypes represent?

Genes that are on opposite ends of the same long chromosome will probably

The appearance of a trait is referred to as its

 

Question 1 The reproductive system uses the hormones ________ and (later on) ____________ to “think ahead”. They guide the preparation of the uterus for its role in supporting pregnancy.

Question 2 The portion of meiosis in which the total number of chromosomes is reduced to half is called the reduction division. Which stage below brings this about?

Question 3 One major advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is that in sexual reproduction

Question 4 Early in your own development, a subset of diploid cells called ____________ began to develop within your pre­ectodermal tissue. These cells will eventually lodge in the gonadal ridge. Still later they will go through meiosis and give rise to primary oocytes or primary spermatocytes.

Question 5 How does a Venus fly trap close? Once expansin has weakened the cellulose in the walls of the leaf trap cells,

Question 6 In the Venus Fly trap, how does the enzyme expansin help to close the trap?

Question 7 For about half of a woman’s monthly cycle, the hormone ________ leaves the pituitary gland and, at the ovary, signals it to bring a more advanced _________ to complete maturity.

Question 8 Which of the following is an example of asexual reproduction in plants?

Question 9 Based on Plato’s analysis, the problem with defining the term “person” arises when you equate personhood with

Question 10 Which of the following methods by which human conception can be postponed is least invasive of the complexity of human physiology?

Question 11 Dilation of the cervix is a chemical procedure that

Question 12 The human nervous system responds to daily alterations in light and darkness by

Question 13 In the human life cycle, diploid cells undergo a cell division process called __________. The resulting haploid cells later fuse during ___________ which regenerates diploid cells.

Question 14 In the lactose operon of E.coli, how does the repressor protein change its shape?

Question 15 In the human body, melatonin supplementation is thought to help overcome the effects of

Question 16 Which of the following are involved in the control of sperm cell production?

Question 17 When the lactose operon is functioning

Question 18 In a normal person, the effect of elevated leptin levels in the bloodstream is

Question 19 The mature egg, once ruptured from its follicle is swept into the _____________ by fingerlike fringes called __________.

Question 20 The quintessential (most basic/ most important) moment of fertilization of the egg by the sperm cell occurs when

Question 21 A mature follicle has formed which of the following structures?

Question 22 A reproductive cell must differ from other normal body cells. The reproductive cell must ______________ because it will soon fuse with another reproductive cell to form a new individual.

Question 23 The stages of meiosis are

Question 24 The specialized process that halves the number of chromosomes during sex cell formation is named

Question 25 After a fly trips the sensory hair on the modified leaf of a Venus fly trap, what is the very next step in the closing process?

 

Question 1 When there is little or no lactose present in a bacterium’s environment then:

Question 2 An “allele” is

Question 3 The specialized process that halves the number of chromosomes during sex cell formation is named

Question 4 Haploid secondary spermatocytes go on directly to complete meiosis forming four spermatid cells. These will differentiate into sperm cells. The last stage of meiosis (that generates the spermatids) is called

Question 5 The following is a list of methods by which human conception can be postponed. Which one blocks sperm on its journey from the testicles to the fallopian tubes?

Question 6 The human nervous system responds to daily alterations in light and darkness by

Question 7 A living thing need to be responsive because

Question 8 The phrase, “two homologous sets of genes” means

Question 9 When an environmental change shifts an organism’s internal chemistry toward a new state, the organism’s response is to try to return its chemistry toward the original state. This tendency on the organism’s part is called

Question 10 Which order of types of cells below correctly reflects the sequence by which a sperm cell is produced?

Question 11 Which of the following are involved in the control of sperm cell production?

Question 12 After a fly trips the sensory hair on the modified leaf of a Venus fly trap, what is the very next step in the closing process?

Question 13 The stages of meiosis are

Question 14 How does a Venus fly trap close? Once expansin has weakened the cellulose in the walls of the leaf trap cells,

Question 15 An optimal site from which the hormone leptin should originate:

Question 16 One major advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is that in sexual reproduction

Question 17 The sequence of events in how a Venus fly trap closes is:

Question 18 One effect of melatonin on the suprachiasmatic nuclei is that it

Question 19 Aristotle, the “Father of Biology”, believed that a human being became a person

Question 20 In the human body, decreasing melatonin levels

Question 21 Which of the following different methods by which human conception can be postponed involves altering the hormonal chemistry of the female partner?

Question 22 Normally a fertilized egg ends its journey temporarily by implanting within the wall of the _____________.

Question 23 The suprachiasmatic nuclei enable the nervous system to respond to daily light/dark alterations through their stimulation of

Question 24 The reproductive system uses the hormones ________ and (later on) ____________ to “think ahead”. They guide the preparation of the uterus for its role in supporting pregnancy.

Question 25 A hormone that controls a person’s appetite might bind to which of the following sites?

 

Question 1 Haploid secondary spermatocytes go on directly to complete meiosis forming four spermatid cells. These will differentiate into sperm cells. The last stage of meiosis (that generates the spermatids) is called

Question 2 A living thing need to be responsive because

Question 3 One effect of melatonin on the suprachiasmatic nuclei is that it

Question 4 The reproductive system uses the hormones ________ and (later on) ____________ to “think ahead”. They guide the preparation of the uterus for its role in supporting pregnancy.

Question 5 Dilation of the cervix is a chemical procedure that

Question 6 The suprachiasmatic nuclei enable the nervous system to respond to daily light/dark alterations through their stimulation of

Question 7 Aristotle, the “Father of Biology”, believed that a human being became a person

Question 8 When there is little or no lactose present in a bacterium’s environment then:

Question 9 If a bog plant designed to catch insects proves unable to do so, the result will be

Question 10 In the lactose operon of E.coli, how does the repressor protein change its shape?

Question 11 The human nervous system responds to daily alterations in light and darkness by

Question 12 In the human body, melatonin supplementation is thought to help overcome the effects of

Question 13 Which of the following are involved in the control of sperm cell production?

Question 14 A reproductive cell must differ from other normal body cells. The reproductive cell must ______________ because it will soon fuse with another reproductive cell to form a new individual.

Question 15 Based on Plato’s analysis, the problem with defining the term “person” arises when you equate personhood with

Question 16 Homeostasis can be described as:

Question 17 For about half of a woman’s monthly cycle, the hormone ________ leaves the pituitary gland and, at the ovary, signals it to bring a more advanced _________ to complete maturity.

Question 18 Which of the following different methods by which human conception can be postponed involves altering the hormonal chemistry of the female partner?

Question 19 Early in your own development, a subset of diploid cells called ____________ began to develop within your pre­ectodermal tissue. These cells will eventually lodge in the gonadal ridge. Still later they will go through meiosis and give rise to primary oocytes or primary spermatocytes.

Question 20 A hormone that controls a person’s appetite might bind to which of the following sites?

Question 21 When the lactose operon is functioning

Question 22 After a fly trips the sensory hair on the modified leaf of a Venus fly trap, what is the very next step in the closing process?

Question 23 One disadvantage of sexual reproduction is

Question 24 A mature follicle has formed which of the following structures?

Question 25 In the Venus Fly trap, how does the enzyme expansin help to close the trap?

1. The study of tissues is

a. cytology

b. histology

c. molecular biology

d. microbiology

e. surface anatomy

2. In a negative feedback mechanism, the response of the effect or

a. reverses the original stimulus

b. enhances the original stimulus

c. has no effect on the original stimulus

d. is usually damaging to the body

e. creates a cycle that leads away from homeostasis

3. Covalent bonds form when

a. atomic nuclei fuse

b. molecules become ionized

c. neutrons are transferred from one atom to another

d. protons are lost from atoms

e. electrons are shared between two atoms

4. Reactions that use water to split molecules apart are called _______ reactions.

a. dehydration

b. synthesis

c. hydrolysis

d. reversible

e. oxidation

5. Proteins

a. are the body’s source of immediate energy

b. are the building blocks of nucleotides

c. provide much of the structure of body cells and tissues

d. contain the genetic information of the cell

e. insulate and cushion the body

6. The plasma membrane

a. separates the nucleus from the rest of the cell

b. is a rigid protein membrane

c. is not permeable

d. has a single layer of phospholipids

e. regulates movement of materials into and out of the cell

7. Channel proteins

a. are binding sites for other molecules

b. utilize the G protein complex to function

c. are found only on endoplasmic reticulum

d. allow cells to recognize one another

e. provide a “door” through which extracellular molecules can enter the cell

8. Which of the following is a function of epithelial tissue?

a. conduction of action potentials

b. secretion and absorption of molecules

c. support of other tissue types

d. contraction

e. shock absorption

9. Adipose tissue

a. functions as an insulator and a site of energy storage

b. exists in three forms: yellow, red, and brown

c. contains large amounts of extracellular matrix

d. is composed of relatively small cells

e. does not contain lipids

10. Skin color is the result of the

a. quantity of melanin in the skin

b. number of keratinocytes in the skin

c. amount of fat in the hypodermis

d. thickness of the stratum basale

e. number of melanocytes in the skin

11. What does structure “B” represent on the diagram?

a. hair follicle

b. arrector pili

c. dermis

d. hypodermis

e. sebaceous gland

12. When blood calcium levels are low

a. osteoclast activity increases

b. calcitonin secretion increases

c. calcium absorption is reduced

d. bones produce more bone tissue

e. osteoblast activity increases

13. What does structure “A” represent on the bone diagram?

a. cancellous bone

b. Diaphysis

c. epiphyseal lines

d. articular cartilage

e. epiphysis

14. What does structure “A” represent?

a. frontal bone

b. occipital bone

c. parietal bone

d. sphenoid bone

e. temporal bone

15. The figure illustrates bones of the right upper limb. What does “A” represent?

a. radius

b. carpals

c. phalanges

d. metacarpals

e. ulna

16. The figure illustrates bones of the right lower limb. What does “C” represent?

a. femur

b. fibula

c. tarsals

d. tibia

e. patella

17. The joint between the head of the radius and the proximal end of the ulna is a _____ joint.

a. plane

b. saddle

c. hinge

d. pivot

e. ball and socket

18. What does structure “A” represent on the diagram?

a. tendon

b. articular cartilage

c. bursa

d. fibrous capsule

e. synovial membrane

19. Which of the following is composed of myosin molecules?

a. thick myofilaments

b. I Bands

c. Z disks

d. Sarcolemma

e. tropomyosin

20. What does “B” represent on the diagram?

a. threshold

b. depolarization

c. depolarization phase of action potential

d. repolarization phase of action potential

21. The flexion of the elbow represents a

a. class I lever system

b. class II lever system

c. class III lever system

d. class IV lever system

e. non-lever system

22. Label muscle “A” on the diagram.

a. orbicularis oculi

b. temporalis

c. trapezius

d. sternocleidomastoid

e. masseter

23. What does “A” represent?

a. coracobrachialis

b. deltoid

c. pectoralis major

d. biceps brachii

e. serratus anterior

24. The central nervous system includes the

a. ganglia

b. spinal cord

c. spinal nerves

d. cranial nerves

e. sensory receptors

25. Identify structure “A” on the neuron.

a. Schwann cell

b. Node of Ranvier

c. neuron cell body (soma)

d. dendrites

e. axon

26. The figure is a process figure of the chemical synapse. What does “C” represent?

a. postsynaptic membrane

b. synaptic cleft

c. synaptic vesicle

d. voltage-gated calcium channel

e. presynaptic terminal

27. Which of the following combinations indicates the correct distribution of spinal nerve pairs?

a. 7 cervical – 12 thoracic – 6 lumbar – 5 sacral – 1 coccygeal

b. 7 cervical – 12 thoracic – 5 lumbar – 6 sacral – 1 coccygeal

c. 8 cervical – 12 thoracic – 6 lumbar – 4 sacral – 1 coccygeal

d. 8 cervical – 12 thoracic – 5 lumbar – 5 sacral – 1 coccygeal

e. 7 cervical – 13 thoracic – 6 lumbar – 5 sacral – 1 coccygeal

28. Label component “A” on the reflex arc.

a. sensory receptor

b. effector organ

c. sensory neuron

d. motor neuron

e. interneuron

29. A small lesion in the brainstem which resulted in a rapid heart rate, intense vasoconstriction, and elevated blood pressure would probably be located in the

a. medulla oblongata.

b. Pons

c. Cerebellum

d. Hypothalamus

e. cerebrum

30. The corpus callosum

a. consists of a broad band of gray matter

b. is found at the base of the transverse fissure

c. is a band of commissural fibers that connects the right cerebral hemisphere to the left cerebral hemisphere

d. connects the frontal lobe to the occipital lobe

e. connects the frontal lobe to the parietal lobe

31. Which nerve has branches that extend to the thoracic and abdominal viscera?

a. facial nerve

b. vagus nerve

c. trigeminal nerve

d. glossopharyngeal ner

32. Which of the following is a somatic sense?

a. smell

b. taste

c. touch

d. sound

e. sight

33. Label area “A” on the cerebral cortex.

a. visual cortex

b. primary motor cortex

c. primary somatic sensory cortex

d. motor speech area (Broca’s area)

e. sensory speech area (Wernicke’s area)

33. The figure is a sagittal section of the eye. What does “A” represent?

a. iris

b. pupil

c. lens

d. conjunctiva

e. cornea

34. Which of the following is NOT an effector controlled by the autonomic nervous system?

a. cardiac muscle

b. glands

c. skeletal muscle

d. smooth muscle in blood vessels

e. smooth muscle in the digestive system

35. Identify structure “C” on the bottom diagram.

a. autonomic ganglion

b. somatic motor neuron

c. effector organ (smooth muscle of GI tract)

d. postganglionic neuron

e. preganglionic neuron

36. The endocrine system

a. releases neurotransmitters into ducts

b. secretes chemicals that reach their targets through the bloodstream

c. communicates via frequency-modulated signals

d. contains organs called exocrine glands

e. is isolated from the nervous system

Consider the following events in the intracellular receptor model:
1: Hormone receptor complex binds to DNA.
2: Messenger RNA directs synthesis of specific proteins.
3: Hormone binds to receptors either in cytoplasm or nucleus.
4: Messenger RNA synthesis is activated.
5: Synthesized proteins produce the response of the cell.

37. Which of these events occurs in the nucleus?

a. 1, 3, 5

b. 1, 3, 4

c. 1, 2, 3

d. 3, 4, 5

e. All events occur in the nucleus

38. The hypothalamus

a. rests in the sella turcica

b. is also called the neurohypophysis

c. is located inferior to the pituitary gland

d. regulates the secretory activity of the pituitary gland

e. is located superior to the thalamus

39. The major secretory products of the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex are

a. glucocorticoids

b. mineralocorticoids

c. androgens.

d. catecholamines

e. cortisol and ADH

vvvv

1. Sickle cell anemia is an example of what type of inheritance?
2.  

   A.multiple alleles

   B.complete dominance

   C.recessive dominance

   D.codominance

   E.incomplete dominance

Question 2

1. If you view a cell in which the genetic material is beginning to be visible as separate bodies, and the nucleus has disappeared from view, you may surmise that the cells is in

    

   A.interphase.

   B.prophase.

   C.metaphase.

   D.anaphase.

   E.telophase.

    

 

Question 3

1. Which of the following statements is true:

    

   A.In recessive genetic disorders, the mother and/or father of an affected individual must also be affected.

   B.With dominant genetic disorders, the mother and/or father of an affected individual must also be affected.

   C.With recessive genetic disorders, if both parents are carriers, the offspring will all be affected.

   D.In carriers, the recessive allele causes an intermediate phenotype.

   E.The dominant allele is masked in homozygous dominant individuals.

    

 

Question 4

1. What structure holds the sister chromatids to the spindle fibers?

    

   A.centromere

   B.chromatin

   C.cyclin

   D.MPF

   E.kinetochore

    

 

Question 5

1. In humans, a gene that has been identified as causing a type of skin cancer is the

    

   A.sonic hedgehog.

   B.mutant superman.

   C.mutant mole rat.

   D.superwoman echidna.

   E.superhero aardvark.

    

 

Question 6

1. Mendel observed that dominant traits

    

   A.were absent in the F1 generation of pea plants that he used in his experiments.

   B.were the only traits seen in the F2 generation of pea plants in his experiments.

   C.are only expressed in hybrids.

   D.are seen in all of the F1 hybrid pea plants in his experiments.

   E.are expressed in all plants.

    

Question 7

1. At the end of metaphase I, _______________ separate.

    

   A.homologous chromosomes

   B.centrioles

   C.haploid chromatids

   D.sister chromatids

   E.germ cells

    

 

Question 8

1. Gregor Mendel was successful in his analysis of the genetics of pea plants because

    

   A.he decided to only look at his results in an objective manner.

   B.pea plants have genetics different from other organisms.

   C.he studied a trait that had a strange inheritance pattern.

   D.he studied the parental plants to determine their differences.

   E.he examined and analyzed both the F1 and F2 generations.

    

 

Question 9

1. After the DNA is replicated, and it condenses in prophase, two identical rods of DNA are seen. These are

    

   A.kinetochores.

   B.chromatids.

   C.spindle fibers.

   D.centromeres.

   E.chromatin.

    

 

Question 10

1. Special cells found in the gonads that give rise to gametes upon division are called

    

   A.stem cells.

   B.somatic cells.

   C.basal cells.

   D.germ cells.

   E.egg cells.

    

 

Question 11

1. Skin cancers typically develop in the

    

   A.upper layers of the dermis.

   B.lower layers of the epidermis.

   C.upper layers of the epidermis.

   D.subcutaneous layer.

   E.lower layers of the dermis.

    

 

Question 12

1. An allele is

    

   A.the main factor determining a trait.

   B.an alternate form of a gene.

   C.the dominant form of a gene.

   D.always one of a pair.

   E.always recessive.

    

 

Question 13

1. Consider two traits for an organism, determined by two genes, each of which is governed by at least two alleles. In the case of a dihybrid individual, the gametes formed will be of either the parental type or the recombinant type. Recombinant type gametes are formed because of

    

   A.the principle of dihybrids.

   B.independent assortment.

   C.incomplete dominance.

   D.multiple alleles.

   E.heterozygosity.

    

 

Question 14

1. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (MD) is inherited from an X-linked recessive allele. What is the probability that a son with Duchenne MD inherited this disease from his biological father?

    

   A.1/8

   B.1/16

   C.1/2

   D.1/4

   E.0

    

 

Question 15

1. Tall corn plants (T) are dominant to dwarf plants (tt). Solid green leaves (G) are dominant to leaves with a white tip (gg). A cross between two corn plants yielded the following phenotypes: 51 tall plants with a white tip on their leaves; 43 dwarf plants with solid leaves; 48 dwarf plants with white tips on their leaves; 45 tall plants with solid leaves. What are the genotypes of the parents that produced these plants?

    

   A.TtGg x Ttgg

   B.ttGG x TTgg

   C.TtGg x ttgg

   D.TtGg x TtGg

   E.None of the above

    

 

Question 16

1. In what phases is the genetic material in the cell correctly referred to as chromatids?

    

   A.metaphase and telophase

   B.interphase and prophase

   C.anaphase and metaphase

   D.metaphase and prophase

   E.interphase and telophase

    

 

Question 17

1. The segregation principle states that in sexually reproducing diploid organisms the two copies of each gene

    

   A.move together as a unit during meiosis.

   B.segregate from each other during meiosis.

   C.will both wind up in either the sperm or egg.

   D.must always be the same allele.

   E.separate from each other during mitosis.

    

 

Question 18

1. If an organism’s diploid chromosome number is 18, how many different possible combinations of homologous chromosomes lining up during meiosis exist for the eggs or sperm produced by that organism?

    

   A.9

   B.128

   C.512

   D.18

   E.36

    

 

Question 19

1. The genetic makeup of a particular trait in an individual is its

    

   A.heterozygosity.

   B.genotype.

   C.dominance.

   D.filial.

   E.phenotype.

his is a 40-question final examination. Each question is worth 0.25 point.

1.     Plasma is ____ while formed elements are ____.

a.    a blood gas; blood clots

b.    the liquid portion of blood; the cells

c.     lacking in protein; regulators of blood osmolality

d.    the cellular portion of blood; acellular components

e.     mostly protein; the matrix

2.    Which of the following cell types is an immature red blood cell?
a.    erythrocyte

b.    reticulocyte

c.    thrombocyte

d.    monocyte

e.    leukocyte

3.     In the platelet release reaction,

a.     factor XII is activated

b.    ADP and thromboxanes stimulate other platelets to become activated

c.     activated platelets are connected by fibrinogen

d.    prostaglandin production is inhibited

e.     platelets convert to fibrin

4.     On the diagram of RBC production, what does “A” represent?
a.     increased blood oxygen

b.    decreased blood oxygen

c.     erythropoietin

d.    kidney

e.     red bone marrow

5.     The heart

a.    is a four-chambered muscular pump

b.    is posterior to the trachea

c.     is lined with an epithelial layer called epicardium

d.    lies mostly to the right of the midline of the sternum

e.     has a superior apex and an inferior base

6.     Blood in the superior vena cava will enter the _____.

a.     Aorta

b.    right atrium

c.     pulmonary trunk

d.    pulmonary arteries

e.    pulmonary veins

7.    Which of the following is mismatched?
a.    opening of sodium fast channels – depolarization

b.    closing of calcium slow channels – plateau phase

c.    opening of potassium channels – rapid repolarization

d.    closure of sodium channels – early repolarization

e.    opening of calcium slow channels – plateau phase

8.    Turbulence of blood flow through the aortic valve would give rise to
a.    the first heart sound

b.    the second heart sound

c.    a heart murmur

d.    an extra heart beat

e.    end-systolic volume

9.    Identify structure “A” on the heart diagram.

a.    left atrium

b.    aortic semilunar valve

c.    bicuspid (mitral) valve

d.    right atrium

e.    pulmonary semilunar valve

10.  Systemic blood vessels transport blood
a.    from the left ventricle through the body to the left atrium

b.    from the left ventricle through the body to the right atrium

c.    from the right ventricle through the body to the left atrium

d.    from the right ventricle through the body to the right atrium

e.     from the left ventricle to the lungs

11.  Veins
a.    carry blood away from the heart

b.    carry blood under very high pressure

c.    may contain valves and are lined with endothelium

d.    are described as strong, rigid vessels that always carry oxygenated blood

e.    have thick, many layered walls

12.  Veins that return blood directly to the heart include the
a.    brachiocephalic vein

b.    superior vena cava

c.    portal vein

d.    azygos vein

e.    pulmonary arteries

13.  When the blood pressure of a vessel drops below the critical closing pressure for that vessel,
a.     there is hypertension

b.    there is an increase in blood flow

c.    there is an increase in peripheral resistance

d.    the vessel collapses

e.    the vessel expands

14.  The lymphatic system differs from the cardiovascular system in that
a.    the lymphatic system only carries fluid away from tissues

b.    the lymphatic vessels have their own “pump” to assist flow

c.    lymph capillaries do not contain any fluid

d.    lymph capillaries allow free movement of fluid in and out of the capillaries

e.     lymph circulates fluids and cardiovascular does not

15.  The structure in the thymus that prevents foreign substances from entering the thymus is the

a.    thymic corpuscle barrier

b.    blood-thymic barrier

c.    surface membrane barrier

d.    capsular barrier

e.    thymic filter

16.  Adaptive immunity is stimulated by
a.    Antigens

b.    Histamines

c.    Antibodies

d.    Complement

e.    plasma proteins

17.  What does “A” represent on the diagram?
a.    spleen

b.    thymus

c.    axillary lymph node

d.    inguinal lymph node

e.    thoracic duct

18.  Ventilation refers to the
a.    movement of air into and out of the lungs

b.    gas exchange between the blood and the tissues

c.    transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood

d.    gas exchange between the air in the lungs and the blood

e.    respiration at the cellular level

19.  Arrange the following structures in the order air passes through them during inhalation:
1: alveolar ducts
2: alveolus
3: respiratory bronchiole
4: terminal bronchiole
a.    1, 2, 3, 4

b.    2, 1, 3, 4

c.    4, 3, 1, 2

d.    3, 2, 1, 4

e.    4, 3, 2, 1

20.  Most carbon dioxide is transported in the blood

a.    in the form of bicarbonate ions.

b.    bound to carbamino compounds.

c.    dissolved in the plasma.

d.    by the leukocytes.

e.    in the form of carbonic acid.

21. The diagram illustrates the major regulatory mechanisms of ventilation. What mechanism does “B” represent?

a.    Hering-Breuer reflex

b.    receptors for touch, temperature, pain stimuli

c.     medullary chemoreceptors

d.    carotid and aortic body chemoreceptors

e.    proprioceptors

22. Which of the following is a function performed by the digestive system?

a.     cellular respiration

b.    food selection

c.    elimination of undigested food

d.    regulation of blood pH

e.     integration and coordination of other systems

23. The tongue

a.    secretes saliva

b.    lays a major role in swallowing

c.    contains a lot of connective and lymphatic tissues

d.    is attached to the hard palate

e.    functions in deglutition apnea

24. Which of the following represents a mismatch in stomach wall structure?

a.    muscularis – two layers; both circular

b.    rugae – folds of mucosa and submucosa

c.    mucosa – gastric glands

d.    gastric pits – open onto surface of stomach mucosa

e.    lining – simple columnar epithelium

25. Blockage of the ileocecal valve would prevent

a.    pancreatic juice from entering the duodenum

b.    bile from entering the duodenum

c.    lymph from entering the jejunum

d.    chyme from entering the ileum

e.    chyme from entering the large intestine

26. Which of the following apply to the small intestine?

a.    Secretions from the liver and pancreas enter this organ

b.    Segmentation contractions occur in this organ

c.    Both digestion and absorption occur in this organ

d.    Mixing and propulsion of chyme.

e.    All of these choices apply to the small intestine

27. The diagram illustrates an absorptive structure in the duodenum. What does “A” represent?

a.    microvilli

b.    epithelial cell

c.    capillary

d.    lacteal

e.     villus

28. Nutrition includes the study of

a.    the nutrients in foods

b.    the body’s utilization of nutrients

c.     how nutrients play a role in your body’s health

d.    digestion, absorption, and transportation of nutrients

e.    All of these choices are correct

29. Excess triglycerides are stored in adipose tissue. Adipose tissue functions

a.    to assist the body in temperature homeostasis

b.    pads and protects

c.    energy storage

d.    insulates

e.    All of these choices are correct

30. The energy currency of the cell is a molecule called

a.    glucose

b.    pyruvate

c.    fat

d.    ADP

e.    ATP

31. The kidney functions in

a.    preventing blood loss

b.    white blood cell production

c.    synthesis of vitamin E

d.    excretion of nitrogenous wastes (such as urea)

e.    production of the hormone aldosterone

32. The portion of the nephron that empties into the collecting duct is the

a.   glomerulus.

b.   ascending loop of Henle.

c.   distal convoluted tubule.

d.   proximal convoluted tubule.

e.  descending loop of Henle.

32. Which of the following pressures tends to force fluid from the glomerulus through the filtration membrane into Bowman’s capsule?

a.    tubular pressure

b.    capsular pressure

c.    colloid osmotic pressure

d.    glomerular capillary pressure

e.    None of these choices is correct

33. Aldosterone targets cells in the

a.    proximal convoluted tubule.

b.    loop of Henle.

c.    distal convoluted tubule.

d.    glomerulus.

e.    collecting duct.

33. Which of the following fluid compartments contains the largest volume of water?

a.    plasma

b.    interstitial compartment

c.    intracellular compartment

d.    extracellular compartment

e.    lymph

36. Elevated blood pressure under resting conditions results in increased urinary output because

a.     baroreceptors signal the hypothalamus to increase ADH secretion.

b.    levated blood pressure stimulates renin secretion.

c.    the amount of angiotensin II formed is increased.

d.    aldosterone levels increase.

e.    baroreceptors signal the hypothalamus to decrease ADH secretion.

37. Calcitonin

a.    promotes the absorption of calcium from the gastrointestinal tract.

b.    promotes osteoclast activity in the bones.

c.    reduces calcium excretion by the kidneys.

d.    reduces extracellular calcium ion levels.

e.    increases blood calcium levels.

38. The location of the testes and epididymides in the scrotum

a.   allows more room for other organs in the abdominal cavity.

b.   keeps these organs close to the penis.

c.    provides a temperature that is suitable for normal sperm development.

d.    keeps them isolated from the accessory glands of the system.

e.    helps to protect them.

39. Shortly after ovulation,

a.    the granulosa cells become corpus luteum cells.

b.    estrogen increases but progesterone decreases.

c.    the level of LH rises even more than before ovulation.

d.    GnRH receptors upregulate.

e.    corpus luteum degenerates.

40. What does “C” on the diagram represent?

a.    vagina

b.    cervix

c.    uterus

d.    ovary

e.    uterine tube

 

 

1. Blood cell formation is called ________.

a. ossification

b. hematopoiesis

c. homeostasis

d. metabolism

2. What bones protect the spinal cord?

a. ribs

b. sternum

c. vertebrae

d. coxal bones

3. Cube-shaped bones that contain mostly spongy bone are called ________ bones.

a. flat

b. long

c. short

d. irregular

4. Small canals that connect osteocytes in their lacunae to the central canal are known as

________.

a. canaliculi

b. perforating (Volkmann’s) canals

c. central (Haversian) canals

d. perforating (Sharpey’s) fibers

5. The process of bone formation is known as ________.

a. hematopoiesis

b. hemostasis

c. metabolism

d. ossification

6. Bone-destroying cells known as osteoclasts are activated by the hormone ________.

a. calcitonin

b. parathyroid hormone (PTH)

c. insulin

d. growth hormone

7. Striated involuntary muscle tissue is classified as ________ muscle.

a. skeletal

b. cardiac

c. smooth

d. either smooth or skeletal

8. The epimysium covering on the outside of the muscle can blend into cordlike ________ or

sheetlike ________.

a. tendons; aponeuroses

b. ligaments; tendons

c. fascia; ligaments

d. aponeuroses; ligaments

9. The ________ is an organelle that wraps and surrounds the myofibril and stores calcium.

a. cross bridge

b. sarcomere

c. sarcolemma

d. sarcoplasmic reticulum

10. Muscle tissue has the ability to shorten when adequately stimulated, a characteristic known as ________.

a. elasticity

b. irritability

c. contractility

d. extensibility

11. One neuron and all the skeletal muscles it stimulates is known as a ________.

a. sarcoplasmic reticulum

b. motor unit

c. synaptic cleft

d. neuromuscular junction

12. The heads of the myosin myofilaments are called ________ when they link the thick and thin

filaments together during skeletal muscle contraction.

a. neuromuscular junctions

b. synapses

c. cross bridges

d. motor units

13. The gap between the motor neuron and the muscle fiber it supplies at the neuromuscular junction is called the ________.

a. synaptic cleft

b. motor unit

c. cross bridge

d. H zone

14. The nervous system is structurally subdivided into two systems: ________ nervous system and ________ nervous system.

a. central; peripheral

b. somatic; autonomic

c. parasympathetic; sympathetic

d. autonomic; sympathetic

15. ________ cells form the myelin sheaths around nerve fibers in the PNS.

a. Satellite

b. Ependymal

c. Schwann

d. Nerve

16. Support cells in the central nervous system are collectively called ________.

a. myelin sheaths

b. neuroglia

c. oligodendrocytes

d. microglia

17. The part of the neuron that typically conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body is the ________.

a. dendrite

b. cell body

c. synaptic cleft

d. axon

18. The gaps between Schwann cells found at regular intervals in peripheral system neurons are called ________.

a. synaptic clefts

b. axon terminals

c. nodes of Ranvier

d. myelin sheathsUnit 2 Examination 86 GED 102 The Human Body

19. Sensory receptors located in muscles and tendons are termed ________.

a. Meissner’s corpuscles

b. proprioceptors

c. lamellar corpuscles

d. association neurons

20. The membrane that covers the outer surface of the eye and lines the eyelids is the ________.

a. choroid

b. sclera

c. conjunctiva

d. retina

21. The ________ gland is located above the lateral end of each eye and releases tears.

a. tarsal

b. ceruminous

c. lacrimal

d. ciliary

22. The fibrous covering of the eye consists of the white outer layer, known as the ________, and a transparent portion known as the ________.

a. sclera; cornea

b. conjunctiva; sclera

c. iris; pupil

d. pupil; cornea

23. The innermost sensory layer of the eye that contains bipolar cells and ganglion cells is the ________.

a. choroid

b. retina

c. sclera

d. cornea

24. The region of the optic nerve lacking photoreceptor cells is known as the ________.

a. retina

b. optic disc (blind spot)

c. choroid

d. iris

25. The biconvex structure that focuses light on the retina is the ________.

a. cornea

b. pupil

c. lens

d. iris

1. Water-soluble hormones, such as proteins and peptide hormones, activate target cells using _______.

a. direct gene activation

b. the second-messenger system

c. steroid hormone action

d. diffusion

2. The most common stimulus for prodding endocrine glands into action is ________.

a. hormonal

b. humoral

c. neural

d. direct gene activation

3. The endocrine gland most closely associated with the hypothalamus is the ________.

a. thymus

b. pineal gland

c. thyroid gland

d. pituitary gland

4. The target organ of thyrotropic hormone (TH), or thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), is the     ________ gland.

a. adrenal

b. pineal

c. pituitary

d. thyroid

5. Alcohol suppresses the production of this hormone, ________, which normally promotes water

retention and prevents dehydration.

a. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

b. aldosterone

c. thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

d. cortisolUnit 3 Examination 128 GED 102 The Human Body

6. The hypothalamus makes two hormones, ________ and ________, that are stored by the posterior pituitary.

a. oxytocin; antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

b. cortisol; aldosterone

c. growth hormone; prolactin

d. antidiuretic hormone (ADH); prolactin

7. Normal blood pH falls in a range between ________ to ________.

a. 7.1; 7.2

b. 7.35; 7.45

c. 7.6; 7.75

d. 7.85; 8.05

8. An important plasma protein that contributes to the osmotic pressure of blood is ________.

a. thyroglobulin

b. fibrin

c. albumin

d. glucose

9. The percentage of erythrocytes in blood is known as the ________.

a. hematocrit

b. buffy coat

c. hemoglobin

d. plasma

10. Each hemoglobin molecule is able to transport ________ molecule(s) of oxygen.

a. one

b. two

c. three

d. four

11. A decrease in the oxygen-carrying ability of the blood, for any reason, is a condition known as ________.

a. polycythemia

b. leukemia

c. anemia

d. leukocytosis

12. Life at a high altitude can lead to a red blood cell disorder known as ________.

a. anemia

b. polycythemia

c. leukocytosis

d. leukemia

13. The layer of the heart wall that receives the stimulus from letter E is called the ________.

a. pericardium

b. epicardium

c. endocardium

d. myocardium

14. The partition where the bundle branches are located is called the ________.

a. left atrioventricular groove

b. interatrial septum

c. interventricular septum

d. right atrioventricular groove

15. The pointed, inferior portion of the heart, known as the ________, rests on the diaphragm and is oriented toward the left hip.

a. base

b. mediastinum

c. apex

d. pericardium

16. The visceral layer of the serous pericardium is actually the same layer as the ________.

a. epicardium

b. myocardium

c. fibrous pericardium

d. endocardium

17. The two superior receiving chambers of the heart are known as the ________, while the two inferior discharging chambers of the heart are known as the ________.

a. ventricles; atria

b. atria; ventricles

c. arteries; veins

d. veins; arteries

18. The valves located between the atria and ventricles are known as the ________ valves.

a. pulmonary

b. atrioventricular (AV)

c. aortic

d. semilunar

19. Blood leaves the left ventricle through an artery known as the ________.

a. pulmonary trunk

b. aorta

c. superior vena cava

d. coronary sinus

20. Lymph fluid and some plasma proteins originate (escape) from the ________.

a. intracellular fluid

b. blood vascular system

c. endocrine system

d. respiratory system

21. Excess accumulation of fluid, which impairs the exchange of materials within the tissues, is called ________.

a. stroke

b. shock

c. edema

d. MALT (mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue)

22. The ________ duct drains lymph from the right arm and the right side of the head and thorax.

a. brachiocephalic

b. subclavian

c. thoracic

d. right lymphatic

23. Bacteria and tumor cells are removed from lymph by ________.

a. lymph nodes

b. tonsils

c. the spleen

d. thymus

24. The role of the ________ is to trap and remove bacteria or other foreign pathogens entering the throat.

a. thymus

b. spleen

c. tonsils

d. lymph node

25. Peyer’s patches and the tonsils are part of the collection of small lymphoid tissues that protect the upper respiratory and digestive tracts from infection and are referred to as ________.

a. lymph nodes

b. MALT or mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue

c. germinal centers

d. lymphatics

 

1. The three mucosa-covered projections into the nasal cavity that greatly increase surface area of mucosa exposed to air are called ________.

a. tonsils

b. adenoids

c. conchae

d. paranasal sinuses

2. The posterior portion of the palate that is not supported by bone is called the ________.

a. soft palate

b. paranasal sinus

c. epiglottis

d. hard palate

3. From superior to inferior, the three regions of the pharynx are the ________.

a. oropharynx, nasopharynx, laryngopharynx

b. nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx

c laryngopharynx, oropharynx, nasopharynx

d. nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, oropharynx

4. The ________ tonsil, or adenoid, is located high in the nasopharynx region.

a. lingual

b. laryngeal

c. pharyngeal

d. palatine

5. The ________ routes air and food into their proper channels and plays a role in speech.

a. tongue

b. pharynx

c. nasal conchae

d. larynx

6. The mucosa-lined windpipe that extends from the larynx to the level of the fifth thoracic vertebra is called the ________.

a. trachea

b. oropharynx

c. main (primary) bronchus

d. nasopharynx

7. ________ lining the mucosa of the trachea beat continuously to propel contaminated mucus to the throat.

a. Microvilli

b. Coarse hairs

c. Cilia

d. Flagella

8. The process of physically and chemically breaking food particles down is referred to as ________.

a. digestion

b. defecation

c. ingestion

d. absorption

9. The ________ runs from the pharynx through the diaphragm to the stomach.

a. trachea

b. esophagus

c. larynx

d. small intestine

10. The innermost layer of the alimentary canal is referred to as the ________.

a. serosa

b. submucosa

c. mucosa

d. muscularis externa

11. The two intrinsic nerve plexuses serving the alimentary canal are the ________.

a. solar; sympathetic

b. submucosa; myenteric

c. autonomic; somatic

d. mucosa; submucosa

12. The ________ sphincter, or valve, controls food movement from the stomach into the small intestine.

a. ileocecal

b. cardioesophageal

c. pyloric

d. anal

13. Large wrinkle-like folds in the stomach lining, present when the stomach is empty, that allow for expansion when the stomach is filling are called ________.

a. villi

b. haustra

c. microvilli

d. rugae

14. The medial indentation where the ureter, blood vessels, and nerves are connected to the kidney is called the ________.

a. renal capsule

b. renal column

c. renal pyramid

d. renal hilum

15. There are three regions of the kidney; the outermost region is known as the ________.

a. renal medulla

b. renal cortex

c. renal pelvis

d. renal hilum

16. Renal (medullary) pyramids are separated by extensions of cortex-like tissue called the ________.

a. renal columns

b. renal pelvis

c. renal hilum

d. renal capsule

17. The blood vessel carrying blood from the aorta into the kidney is the ________.

a. hepatic artery

b. renal artery

c. renal vein

d. glomerulus

18. The functional unit of the kidney that filters blood and forms urine is the ________.

a. glomerulus

b. nephron

c. renal pyramid

d. renal pelvis

19. The blood vessel directly feeding the glomerulus with blood from the cortical radiate artery is the ________.

a. peritubular capillary

b. efferent arteriole

c. renal vein

d. afferent arteriole

20. The gonads produce sex cells, also known as ________,

a. zygotes

b. interstitial cells

c. gametes

d. spermatids

21. Sperm are formed in tightly coiled tubes called seminiferous tubules that are found within each ________.

a. spermatic cord

b. testis

c. ductus (vas) deferens

d. epididymis

22. The glands that produce a thick, yellowish secretion which nourishes and activates sperm are the ________.

a. bulbo-urethral glands

b. prostate

c. seminal glands (vesicles)

d. ejaculatory duct

23. The ________ gland surrounds the upper portion of the urethra just below the junction with the urinary bladder.

a. ejaculatory

b. seminal

c. bulbo-urethral

d. prostate

24. The enlarged tip of the penis is called the ________.

a. glans penis

b. shaft

c. scrotum

d. prepuce (foreskin)

25. The male external genitalia include the ________ and the ________.

a. testes; ductus (vas) deferens

b. spermatic cord; glans penis

c. penis; scrotum

d. seminal glands (vesicles); ejaculatory duct

Question

1. Which of the following includes all the others?

A) atom

B) cell

C) organism

D) population

2. In science, a hypothesis must be

A) testable

B) derived from a theory

C) a known fact

D) able to be proven absolutely true

3. A chlorine atom has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 17 electrons. The atomic number of chlorine is

A) 8

B) 17

C) 35

D) 52

4. If you place the probe of a pH meter in lye or sodium hydroxide (NaOH), it will read pH 14. Sodium hydroxide is

A) an acid

B) neutral

C) a base

5. This polysaccharide forms fibers that are a major component of plant cell walls:

A) glucose

B) starch

C) cellulose

D) glycogen

6. Which of these types of molecules contain nitrogen?

A) polysaccharides

B) proteins

C) steroids

7. Fats contain more energy per gram than carbohydrates or proteins because

A) fat molecules contain a lower percentage of oxygen atoms

B) fat molecules contain a lower percentage of hydrogen atoms

C) fat molecules contain a lower percentage of carbon atoms

D) fat molecules contain a higher percentage of adipose atoms

8. Prokaryotic cells, with no nucleus or membranous organelles, are found in

A) animals

B) bacteria

C) fungi

D) plants

9. The main function of a ribosome is to

A) extract energy from glucose

B) synthesize glucose

C) store food in the form of fat

D) synthesize proteins

10. Mitochondria

A) package proteins for secretion from cell

B) contain chromosomes

C) are sites of oxidation of glucose to generate ATP

D) synthesize proteins

11. The plasma membrane consists of

A) a single layer of phospholipid molecules

B) a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which proteins are embedded

C) several layers of protein and carbohydrate molecules

D) a triple layer of phospholipids and carbohydrates

12. The movement of molecules from a region of low concentration across a membrane to a region of high concentration by use of ATP energy is

A) active transport

B) diffusion

C) passive transport

D) osmosis

13. The oxygen in our atmosphere is produced by

A) greenhouse effect

B) cellular respiration

C) photosynthesis

D) volcanic eruptions

14. Yeast cells break down glucose anaerobically into

A) ethanol and CO2

B) lactic acid and CO2

C) lactic acid and H2O

D) ethanol and H2O

15. Carbon dioxide is released in

A) the light-dependent phase of photosynthesis

B) the Krebs cycle

C) glycolysis

D) the Calvin cycle

16. If the concentration of glucose in the water outside of a cell is lower than the concentration inside

A) water will tend to enter the cell by osmosis

B) water will tend to leave the cell by osmosis

C) glucose will tend to enter the cell by osmosis

D) glucose will tend to leave the cell by osmosis

17. What happens if a red blood cell is placed in a hypertonic solution?

A) the cell will shrink

B) the cell will swell and may burst

C) the cell will remain the same size

18. Which of the following is not a characteristic of enzymes?

A) they are proteins

B) they speed up the rate of chemical reactions

C) they act on specific substances called substrates

D) they are used up in each reaction, thus need to be produced in large quantities

19. Which of these does not have to be present for photosynthesis to occur?

A) water

B) carbon dioxide

C) glucose

D) chlorophyll

20. Each new cell produced by this process will have an identical copy of all chromosomes and genes possessed by the parent cell:

A) mitosis

B) meiosis

21. During the first division of meiosis,

A) chromosomes separate at the centromere

B) homologous chromosomes separate

C) chromosomes become triploid

22. If a normal parent and an albino parent have albino child, the genotypes of the parents are

A) AA x Aa

B) Aa x Aa

C) Aa x aa

D) aa x aa

23. The number of chromosomes in a human egg cell is

A) 4

B) 23

C) 46

D) 48

24. A change in DNA base sequence from CATAC to CACAC would describe

A) translation

B) replication

C) transcription

D) mutation

25. Which of these processes does notoccur in the nucleus?

A) DNA replication

B) transcription

C) translation

26. tRNA molecules contain anticodons and carry amino acids to be used in this process:

A) mutation

B) DNA replication

C) transcription

D) translation

27. Exchange of genes between maternal and paternal chromosomes before the first division of meiosis is caused by

A) X-linkage

B) crossing over

C) replication

D) cytokinesis

28. Which is not a subunit of DNA?

A) adenine

B) guanine

C) uracil

D) phosphate

29. A karyotype of an individual with Down syndrome has how many chromosomes?

A) 3

B) 23

C) 46

D) 47

30. If a heterozygous male mates with an albino female, what percentage of albino children would be expected?

A) 0%

B) 25%

C) 50%

D) 75%

E) 100%

31. A father with genotype IAIB and mother with phenotype O could produce children with these blood types:

A) AB only

B) A and B only

C) A, B, and AB only

D) A, B, AB, and O

32. During DNA replication, an old DNA strand with base sequence ATCTGAGTA would serve as a template to form a new complementary strand with the base sequence:

A) TAGACTCAT

B) ATCTGAGTA

C) AUCUCUGUA

33. In peas, tall (T) is dominant to dwarf (t) and, on a separate chromosome set, purple flower (P) is dominant to white flower (p). If Gregor Mendel crosses the genotypes TtPp and ttPp, what is the expected ratio of phenotypes in the offspring?

A) 9/16 tall purple flowered, 3/16 tall white, 3/16 dwarf purple, 1/16 dwarf white

B) 3/8 tall purple flowered, 1/8 tall white, 3/8 dwarf purple, 1/8 dwarf white

C) 1/4 tall purple flowered, 1/4 tall white, 1/4 dwarf purple, 1/4 dwarf white

D) 3/4 tall purple flowered, 1/4 dwarf white

34. Queen Victoria’s son Leopold had hemophilia, which is caused by a sex-linked recessive gene (Xh). Leopold lived to be 31 years old and fathered a normal daughter. What is the genotype of his daughter?

A) X^HX^H

B) X^HX^h

C) X^hX^h

D) X^HY

35. Microevolution by genetic drift is more likely in

A) large populations

B) small populations

36. New alleles appear in a species by

A) genetic drift

B) mutation

C) gene flow

D) natural selection

37. The insect wing, bat wing, and bird wing are

A) analogous structures

B) homologous structures

38. Speciation is most likely when a huge continental population of a snail species

A) undergoes genetic drift

B) is forced north by global warming

C) is divided in two over the eons by the rise of a mountain range

39. Groups of organisms that interbreed in nature and are reproductively isolated from other such groups defines

A) communities

B) hybrids

C) families

D) species

40. Certain species of ants protect, and receive food from, certain species of acacia trees in the tropics. This exemplifies

A) predation

B) mutualism

C) competition

41. The most important cause of species extinction due to humans in recent centuries is

A) disease

B) global warming

C) genetic engineering

D) habitat loss

42. If the decomposers were removed from an ecosystem, the other organisms would eventually die because

A) green plants would run out of necessary minerals in the soil

B) green plants would lose their energy source

C) herbivores must eat decomposers

D) decomposers release oxygen needed by the other organisms

43. The source of energy for an ecosystem is

A) nutrients in the soil

B) water

C) sunlight

D) recycled energy from decomposers

44. Fungi are primarily

A) producers

B) herbivores

C) carnivores

D) decomposers

45. If deer are placed on an island with a constant, renewable food supply and a stable biological

community with predators, the growth curve after several decades would be described as a

A) J-curve [exponential]

B) S-curve [logistic]

46. Professor Hotsun is studying a desert ecosystem containing fig trees, fig-eating rats, rateating snakes, and snake-eating lizards. If the fig trees produce one million kcal of energy, about how much energy would be contained in the population ofrat-eating snakes?

A) 100,000 kcal

B) 50,000 kcal

C) 10,000 kcal

D) 1000 kcal

47. Colorblindness (X^b) is X-linked and recessive. Blondie is normal, and not a carrier, but her husband Dagwood is colorblind. If their daughter Cookie marries a colorblind man, what phenotypes can Cookie expect in her sons?

A) all normal

B) all colorblind

C) 1/2 colorblind, 1/2 normal

48. John has type A blood. John’s father has type O blood. Mary has type B blood. Mary’s mother is type A. The possible blood types of John and Mary’s daughters are

A) AB only

B) A or AB only

C) B or AB only

D) A, B, AB or O

Here is a list of mRNA codons and their amino acids. Use this information to answer #49 and #50:

AAU – asparagine AUC – isoleucine CAA – glutamine CAU – histidine

CGU – arginine CUU – leucine GAA – glutamate GAU – aspartate

GCA – alanine GGC – glycine UGU – cysteine

49. The sequence of amino acids of Arginine-Alanine-Leucine would be coded by this sequence of bases on mRNA :

A) CGUGCACUU

B) GUGCACAA

C) GCACGTGAA

D) GAAGCAGGC

50. A sequence of bases on a DNA strand of GAATTACGT would code for this amino acid sequence:

A) Leucine-Asparagine-Alanine

B) Aspartate-Glutamate-Alanine

C) Glutamine-Cysteine- Histidine

D) Leucine-Glutamate-Histidine