Day: April 27, 2018

Question

1 of 25

The lower limit of the intertidal zone is the

average high tide.

average middle tide.

lowest tide.

lowest edge of the rocky substrate.

None of the above choices are correct: it varies according to type of substrate.

Question

2 of 25

The particular characteristic most widely used in classifying intertidal communities is which of the following?

Type of tides

Relative exposure to air

Type of substrate

Type of seaweeds

Relative immersion by water

Question

3 of 25

Which of the following strategies is not used to avoid desiccation in the intertidal?

Closing shells

Crowding in areas that are always moist

Burrowing into substrate

Mucus

Moving out of tide pools

Question

4 of 25

Most sessile animals living on rocky shores are which of the following?

Deposit feeders

Carnivores

Detritus feeders

Filter feeders

Grazers

Question

5 of 25

If a rocky shore highly exposed to wave action is compared to a similar rocky shore that is a lot less exposed to wave action, one should expect that barnacles living on the more exposed shore show a

wider vertical distribution.

narrower tolerance to salinity.

narrower tolerance to temperature.

narrower vertical distribution.

higher resistance to predators.

Question

6 of 25

Byssal threads are used by mussels to cope with.

desiccation.

wave shock.

restricted feeding.

salinity changes.

temperature changes.

Question

7 of 25

Vertical zonation on rocky shores is mostly the result of differences in tolerance to

 

wave action.

exposure.

predation.

light.

salinity.

Question

8 of 25

This organism is typical of the upper intertidal on rocky shores.

Mussels

Barnacles

Sponges

Sea anemones

Periwinkles

Question

9 of 25

The middle intertidal is characterized by which of the following?

Constant wetting by splash and spray

Long exposure to air

Steady immersion

Exposure and immersion on a regular basis

Splashing during high tide and complete exposure at low tide

Question

10 of 25

Intertidal organisms from exposed areas sometimes have thicker shells than their counterparts from less exposed areas. This is thought to be an adaptation to

desiccation.

restricted feeding.

wave shock.

salinity changes.

temperature changes.

Question

11 of 25

Predation by sea stars on rocky shores ultimately results in

fewer species.

less wave action.

a decrease in the number of seaweeds.

an increase in the number of mussels.

more species.

Question

12 of 25

Ecological succession ultimately results in

a climax community.

an upper-limit stage.

competitive exclusion.

keystone predation.

vertical zonation.

Question

13 of 25

Which of the following is generally considered to be the greatest limiting resource in the rocky intertidal?

Salinity

Space

Prey

Availability of mates

Light availability

Question

14 of 25

Which of these organisms is typically a very rare component of soft-bottom intertidal communities?

Burrowing organisms

Detritus feeders

Seaweeds

Infauna

Deposit feeders

Question

15 of 25

Most animals living on sandy beaches are included among which of the following?

Infauna

Deposit feeders

Macrofauna

Producers

Grazers

Question

16 of 25

Fine sediments are characteristic of

shores exposed to wave action.

rocky shores.

areas with wide temperature fluctuations.

calm, less exposed shores.

areas that experience considerable water flow.

Question

17 of 25

The interstitial water in muddy bottoms

has plenty of oxygen since temperature is much higher than in the water column.

accumulates oxygen as a result of photosynthesis by inhabitants of the sediment.

recirculates oxygen very frequently so it is high.

is deficient in oxygen.

is deficient in oxygen but only during the day.

Question

18 of 25

The main source of food in muddy-bottom intertidal communities is

seaweeds

detritus

plankton

large prey

epifauna

Question

19 of 25

On Atlantic shores, the dog whelk (Nucella lapillus) has two color forms: white-shelled and brown-shelled. Survival of one form over the other form in a region appears to be related to

temperature.

salinity.

substrate type.

prey availability.

predators.

Question

20 of 25

What organism would be most likely to be found in the upper intertidal zone of a rocky shoreline?

Mussels

Seaweed

Encrusting algae

Barnacles

Irish moss

Question

21 of 25

In soft-bottomed intertidal communities, locations with strong waves and currents are most likely to have which type of bottom?

Gravel

Sand

Silt

Clay

Mud

Question

22 of 25

Meiofauna live

on rocky shores.

on sandy bottoms.

between grains of sediment.

in burrows.

in the water column.

Question

23 of 25

A species that significantly influences the structure and diversity of its community is a ______________.

predator species

keystone species

prey animal

primary producer

apex predator

Question

24 of 25

The best reason for putting a cage over certain organisms in an intertidal study area is so that __________________.

other organisms can be kept out of the study area

biologists can control when certain animals mate

their respiration rates can be measured

they can be removed from the area

body measurements can be taken

Question

25 of 25

Two sediments that are very rich in detritus are ______________.

sand and gravel

sand and clay

silt and gravel

clay and sand

silt and clay

 

 

Question

1 of 25

The mesopelagic zone refers to the ocean depths in which there is

enough light to support plant growth.

no light at all.

dim light, but not enough for plant growth.

enough light for primary production by bacteria.

dim light, but enough to support only some hardy plants.

Question

2 of 25

Where is the main thermocline located?

In the mesopelagic.

Above the mesopelagic.

Below the mesopelagic.

It varies since the thermocline disappears in the tropics.

It varies since the thermocline moves up and down in the water column depending on the amount of oxygen.

Question

3 of 25

Photophores are

specialized eyes.

buoyancy-regulating organs.

specialized jaws.

light-sensitive organs that lack the lens of true eyes.

light-producing organs.

Question

4 of 25

Which of the following is not true regarding the deep-scattering layer (DSL)?

Its position rises at night and moves down during the day.

It is comprised of fish, shrimp, squids and jellyfish.

It is found at depths of 300-500 meters.

It was discovered by sonar.

Its position is deeper on nights with a new moon.

Question

5 of 25

The tubular eyes of some mid-water animals are adapted for

increasing the field of vision.

producing light.

seeing in the complete absence of light.

sensing changes in depth.

sensing changes in salinity.

Question

6 of 25

The presence of bioluminescent organs on the underside of mid-water fishes is involved in

countershading.

enlargement of silhouette.

creating a transparency effect.

cryptic coloration.

counterillumination.

Question

7 of 25

Deep-sea pelagic fishes are characterized by all of the following except

small eyes.

absent or reduced swim bladder.

red color.

flabby muscles.

large mouth and teeth.

Question

8 of 25

Which of the following is an important feeding adaptation among deep-sea fishes?

Migration to shallower water to feed

Feeding on males, hence the term “male parasitism”

Ability to eat prey bigger than themselves

Strong muscles that allow them to move fast to catch any available prey

Absence of a stomach

Question

9 of 25

Pheromones are special chemicals that are used to

digest food.

attract mates.

catch prey.

transport oxygen.

produce bioluminescence.

Question

10 of 25

The energy source for the bacteria that thrive around deep-sea hydrothermal vents is

hydrogen sulfide.

light.

heat from the hydrothermal vents.

detritus.

tube-worm tissues.

Question

11 of 25

The major advantage that deep-sea benthic animals have over pelagic ones is that their food

is easier to digest.

falls to the bottom and stays in one place, thus being available for a longer time.

gets to be eaten before it gets to pelagic animals.

gets less decayed by bacteria

produces less detritus.

Question

12 of 25

A shrimp that occurs in large numbers around deep-sea hydrothermal vents does not have eyes. Light-sensitive cells on the top of the body, however, appear to be used to detect faint light from

bioluminescent predators.

the surface.

faint glow around vents.

bioluminescent prey.

mates.

Question

13 of 25

An unknown fish has been brought to the student to examine. This fish is black, relatively small with small eyes and weak, flabby muscles. This fish is most likely from which zone?

Mesopelagic (vertical migratory)

Mesopelagic (vertical non-migrator)

Epipelagic

Deep pelagic

Deep-sea benthic

Question

14 of 25

Traditional fisheries are those that

have their catches routinely recorded.

catch shellfish, not finfish.

do not use boats.

use relatively simple gear and methods.

do not sell their catches to the general public.

Question

15 of 25

Most marine food resources are taken from

coral reefs.

the continental shelf.

open waters off the continental shelf.

estuaries.

mariculture ponds.

Question

16 of 25

By definition, pelagic catches are those that are harvested from

the open water.

the bottom.

estuaries.

waters where primary production is increased by upwelling.

the continental shelf.

Question

17 of 25

Trawls are nets that

surround and trap fish.

float on the surface.

are allowed to drift along the surface.

are placed along the bottom to trap passing fishes.

are dragged along the bottom or through the water column.

Question

18 of 25

The maximum sustainable yield is best defined as the

highest catch that can be taken without overfishing.

maximum fishing effort allowed after overfishing is reached.

highest catch that will pay the minimum cost of the fishing effort.

minimum catch that will still allow the population to grow.

the annual size of the catch that will balance natural death and predation.

Question

19 of 25

Continued catches above the maximum sustainable yield

can be increased to prevent overfishing.

will result in underutilization.

will result in a decrease of fishing effort.

must be decreased in order to decrease population size.

will result in overfishing.

Question

20 of 25

Which of the following best describes commercial fisheries around the world?

Most have been affected by overfishing.

About 20% have been affected by overfishing.

All have been affected by overfishing.

All have been affected by overfishing but none have been exhausted.

None in the Southern Hemisphere have been affected by overfishing.

Question

21 of 25

The farming of salmon includes all the following problems except

higher levels of contaminants in farmed fish tissue.

pollution released into environment.

it is more expensive.

it threatens genetic identity of wild salmon.

it increases parasites

Question

22 of 25

“By-catch” is the name given to

unwanted species that are caught while fishing.

species caught for industrial purposes.

krill and other shellfish.

species raised in fish farms.

species caught as part of traditional fisheries.

Question

23 of 25

Releasing farmed salmon fry to grow at sea and harvesting them when they return to the river where they were released is called

open mariculture.

closed mariculture.

salmon ranching.

traditional salmon runs.

intensive mariculture.

Question

24 of 25

Desalination plants

extract minerals for industrial use from seawater.

convert seawater into fresh water.

extract table salt from seawater.

convert seawater into brackish water for industrial uses.

extract oil from seawater.

Question

25 of 25

Successful pharmaceutical uses for marine organisms include all of the following except

red seaweed extract used for weight gain.

sponge extract used as anti-inflammatory.

squalamine from sharks used to treat cancer.

bryostating from bryozoans used to treat cancer.

horseshoe crab blood used to test vaccines from contamination.

Question1 of 20
Homology is evidence of ______.
A. directional selection
B. convergent evolution
C. genetic drift
D. common ancestry
2 of 20
Which one of the following statements is true?
A. Natural selection works on non-heritable traits.
B. Natural selection works on variation already present in a population.
C. Individuals evolve through natural selection.
D. Organisms evolve structures that they need.
3 of 20
Natural selection results in ______.
A. increased genetic variation
B. offspring better adapted to a future environment
C. a decrease in the size of a population
D. offspring adapted to their current environment
4 of 20
Who believed in species change by passing acquired characteristics on to offspring?
A. Wallace
B. Mendel
C. Lamarck
D. Darwin
5 of 20
Which one of the following will prevent significant genetic drift?
A. Gene flow is absent.
B. The population size is large.
C. There is genetic variation.
D. Variation in a particular trait is heritable.
6 of 20
Which of these types of Galapagos species most influenced Darwin to develop the theory of species change by natural selection?
A. Goats
B. Reptiles
C. Small birds
D. Cacti
7 of 20
All of the alleles of all of the genes within a population make up that population’s ______.
A. genotype
B. heterozygosity
C. gene pool
D. gene flow
8 of 20
A small population of deer is introduced to an island. All the males have 11-13 points on their antlers. After several generations, if all males have 12 point antlers, this is due to
A. disruptive selection.
B. stabilizing selection.
C. directional selection.
D. bottleneck effect.
9 of 20
Two nearby populations, in which there is some movement of individuals between the populations, are an example of
A. gene flow.
B. disruptive selection.
C. genetic drift.
D. bottleneck effect.
10 of 20
Evidence which supports the theory of evolution is found in studies of
A. embryos.
B. biochemistry.
C. fossils.
D. All of the above.
11 of 20
Which of the following is an example of sexual selection?
A. Peahens choose to mate with peacocks that have the most beautiful tails.
B. Bacteria evolve resistance to antibiotics.
C. Sexual recombination occurs during meiosis.
D. Cheetahs experienced a population bottleneck.
12 of 20
The publication date of Darwin’s The Origin of Species was
A. 1809.
B. 1830.
C. 1869.
D. 1859.
13 of 20
Imagine a population of tree frogs in South America whose habitat has been reduced to the point where only 25 frogs survive. This is an example of
A. founder effect.
B. bottleneck effect.
C. genetic drift.
D. All of the above.
14 of 20
Homologous structures, such as a bat wing and whale flipper
A. are similar externally but have different basic structures and were probably not derived from a common ancestor.
B. are the result of pairs of chromosomes that are identical in bats and whales.
C. have the same underlying structure due to inheritance from a common ancestor.
D. are structures that did not develop in response to natural selection.
15 of 20
Which of the following is an example of directional selection?
A. The birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same.
B. There is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.
C. Garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.
D. A catastrophe wipes out nearly 99% of a population.
16 of 20
A small population of deer is introduced to an island. All the males have 11-13 points on their antlers. After several generations, if most males have antlers with 20 points, this is the result of
A. the founder effect.
B. stabilizing selection.
C. disruptive selection.
D. directional selection.
17 of 20
Darwin and Lamarck both realized that most species produce many more offspring than is necessary to maintain a constant population. What is the fate of the excess individuals?
A. Evolution kills them off.
B. They evolve to take advantage of natural resources.
C. The more favorable forms survive and reproduce, while the others do not.
D. They mutate and then are able to adapt to new environments.
18 of 20
Genetic drift results in a change in gene frequencies because
A. the population size is so small that chance occurrences can alter gene frequencies.
B. reproduction is non-random within the population.
C. the population has not yet stabilized.
D. the population is so large that natural selection has little noticeable effect.
19 of 20
Which of the following males in a given population would be considered the most fit in an evolutionary sense? One that produced
A. 1,000 offspring, of which 100 survived but 99 did not reproduce.
B. two offspring, both of which survived and produced offspring of their own.
C. 10 offspring, of which 10 survived, but nine did not reproduce.
D. 100 offspring of which 10 survived but nine did not reproduce.
20 of 20
While on the Beagle, Darwin was influenced by a book by Charles Lyell that suggested that Earth was ______ and sculpted by geologic processes that ______ .
A. old; continue
B. old; no longer occur
C. young; continue
D. young; no longer occur

 

Select one of the following RFP procurement cases to develop your PP1 RFP:

A New Practice Field
You own a semipro baseball team (in the location of your choice) and you want to construct a new practice field. You own the land already (20 acres). The land is relatively flat and it has only a few dilapidated structures (barns) and trees on it. Connecting up with existing water and sewer lines would present no unusual technical problems. It is now September, and you would love to have that field ready to go by March two years hence. Your vision would include the playing field, a small clubhouse, and a parking area that would hold about 50 cars. No spectator seating would be required. The decision to go with one general contractor has already been made.

An Environmental Impact Study
You are a general contractor wishing to put up a modest sized cement production plant on the outskirts of town. The plant would operate on only one 10-hour shift per day and would produce about 400 cubic yards of output per day for six days per week. It is necessary for an environmental impact study to be undertaken before the county can issue a permit. The biggest issue is, of course, the air quality implications of cement production, but potential impacts on water quality are of concern as well. It is now October, and you want to start building the plant by the end of next summer, if at all possible. It is now time to issue an RFP to procure an environmental impact analysis. Studies of this type normally require about three months of concerted effort by a team of analysts.

An Inventory Control System
You sell seeds from a catalog, and business has been blossoming. However, your inventory tracking system is inadequate. In high season, supply outages have been frequent, and customer complaints over delays have been increasing. You fear that your business will die on the vine unless something is done to improve things. You want to hire a management consultant to design a new inventory tracking system. This kind of work normally requires about six months worth of effort. It is now May. You need to issue an RFP for this work. The procurement will be for the design stage only—implementation may or may not be handled under a separate contract at a later date.

The first page of your overall submission must be a cover sheet that contains the project title (hopefully, not “PP2” or anything like it—be inventive), your name, your e-mail address, and course identifying information (e.g., “PROJ598 for this term” will suffice—obviously, use the correct term identifier). The second page will be a Table of Contents (TOC) listing the major RFP sections together with page numbers. Include on this page a listing of the references that you used in the RFP preparation, including websites, if any. The next 1-to-10 pages constitute the main body of the RFP. Appendix B contains a list of suppliers to whom you would send the RFP. These must be real bona fide contractors—not hypothetical ones. On that page, say how you chose these potential suppliers. The cover sheet, TOC/references page, and supplier list do not count toward the 10-page limitation.

The structure should, therefore be:

Cover sheet (one page)
Table of contents and references (one page)
RFP main body (no more than 10 pages)
Appendices (no page limit)
Appendix B: Supplier list (one page)

Biology 204

Principles of Biology I

A.    Definition/Comparison Questions

Instructions: In your own words, define the pairs of terms given below. Write in complete sentences, stating the differences and relationships between the two terms, and give specific examples where appropriate. A complete answer usually requires four to eight sentences.

Each question is worth four marks, for a total of 40 marks.

1.  centriole / kinetochor

2.  cleavage furrow / cell plate

3.  allele / locus

4.  RNA primer / DNA polymerase

5.  guanine / cytosine

6.  translation / anticodon

7.  operator / promoter

8.  conjugation / transformation

9.  RFLPs / Southern blot analysis

10.pleiotropy / polygenic inheritance

B.     Short Answer/Short Essay Questions

Instructions: Answer each of the questions given below in your own words. Write in complete sentences where appropriate. A complete answer usually requires one to two sentences per mark, so a three-mark question would be answered in three to six sentences. This section is worth a total of 40 marks.

(4 marks)      1.   Explain how CDKs regulate cell division.

(4 marks)      2.   Explain the role of transposable elements in eukaryotes.

(8 marks)      3.   Using the following DNA template strand sequence, answer the
questions that follow:

3’–TGCAGGAAGCTACATTAG–5’

a.       What is the mRNA sequence?

b.      What is the final sequence of amino acids in the peptide produced?

c.       If the sequence is mutated so that adenine at position 11 is replaced with uracil, how will the peptide be affected? What kind of a mutation is this?

(5 marks)      4.   a.   What is an operon?

b.      How do inducible operons (e.g., the lactose operon) and repressible operons (e.g., the tryptophan operon) benefit a bacterial cell?

(5 marks)      5.   Explain the possible role of telomerase in cellular aging and in cancer
formation.

(6 marks)      6.   a.   Draw a diagram to show what could happen during meiosis that
would result in an egg with two X chromosomes.

b.      If this egg is fertilized and develops, what are the possible karyotypes of the offspring?

(6 marks)      7.   A female yellow Labrador retriever homozygous for coat colour
(bbee) is mated with a male black lab. They have two chocolate
puppies, three black puppies and one yellow puppy. What is the
genotype of the father? Use Punnett squares to show your reasoning.

(2 marks)      8.   What is a proteome, and why is it studied in addition to (or instead
of) the genome?

C.     Multiple Choice Questions

Instructions: Select the single best answer to each of the questions given below. Each question is worth one mark, for a total of 30 marks.

1.  A zygote contains the ________ complement of chromosomes.

a.       haploid

b.      diploid

c.       polyploid

d.      spermatogenesis

e.       none of these

2.  How is the nucleoid of a bacterial cell replicated?

a.       The linear DNA molecule is replicated from multiple origins of replication bidirectionally.

b.      The linear DNA molecule is replicated from one origin of replication bidirectionally.

c.       The circular DNA molecule is replicated from multiple origins of replication bidirectionally.

d.      The circular DNA molecule is replicated from one origin of replication bidirectionally.

e.       The circular DNA molecule is replicated from one origin of replication unidirectionally.

3.  Some cats have calico coats. These result from

a.       polygenic inheritance.

b.      epistasis.

c.       pleiotropy.

d.      inactivation of the X chromosome.

e.       independent assortment.

4.  A male human with normal vision is mated with a colour blind woman. If they have children together, what is the probability that they will have a colour blind daughter?

a.       1

b.      0.75

c.       0.5

d.      0.25

e.       0

5.  Which of the following is NOT correct about bacterial conjugation?

a.       F^– cells do not contain the F factor.

b.      Bacterial conjugation results in an exchange of genes between two bacterial cells.

c.       Genes on the F factor code for sex pili.

d.      Genes can be transferred from the donor to the recipient.

e.       Hfr cells can produce sex pili.

6.  In generalized transduction, a bacterium obtains DNA from a virus as a result of a lytic cycle. The bacterium will

a.       survive.

b.      harbour a prophage.

c.       die immediately.

d.      reproduce for a few generations, until the prophage becomes virulent.

e.       contain virus nucleic acid.

7.  A repressible operon is usually controlled by

a.       an inactive repressor that allows the operon to be in the “on” state.

b.      the supply of the precursor product for the enzymes.

c.       an inactive repressor that keeps the operon in the “off” state.

d.      tryptophan.

e.       being turned “on,” usually by the end product of the pathway.

8.  A karyotype reveals that an individual is XYY. Based on your knowledge of human genetics, you conclude that this individual is phenotypically

a.       female and has unusual physical features.

b.      female and is sterile.

c.       female and is fertile.

d.      male and is sterile.

e.       male and is fertile.

9.  Translocation occurs when

a.       part of a chromosome breaks off and attaches to a nonhomologous chromosome.

b.      part of a chromosome breaks off and attaches to a homologous chromosome.

c.       crossing-over events occur.

d.      genes move from one area on a chromosome to another area on the same chromosome.

e.       a Y chromosome replaces an X chromosome in a female cell.

10.In a plant cell, cytokinesis begins with the formation of

a.       an aster.

b.      a mitotic spindle.

c.       a Golgi complex.

d.      a cell wall.

e.       a cell plate.

11.In a human cell at prophase I, there are ________ tetrads.

a.       92

b.      46

c.       23

d.      2

e.       4

12.In which phase are chromosomes least condensed?

a.       metaphase

b.      prophase

c.       anaphase

d.      interphase

e.       telophase

13.Translation is the process whereby the ________ moves in order
to place the tRNA bound to the growing polypeptide chain in
the ________ site, thereby freeing the ________ site for a new
aminoacyl-tRNA.

a.       mRNA; A; P

b.      ribosome; P; A

c.       tRNA; P; A

d.      ribosome; A; P

e.       tRNA; A; P

14.Which of the following statements about DNA is FALSE?

a.       DNA is capable of forming many different sequences.

b.      DNA contains thymine instead of uracil.

c.       DNA is double-stranded in eukaryotic cells.

d.      DNA is single-stranded in prokaryotic cells.

e.       DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose.

15.Binary fission occurs when

a.       mitosis takes place without cytokinesis.

b.      homologous chromosomes have already paired.

c.       the cyclin-Cdk complex is no longer phosphorylating enzymes.

d.      the cell cycle is out of control.

e.       a prokaryotic cell reproduces.

16.“Sticky ends” are

a.       the single-stranded ends of a DNA segment created by some restriction enzymes.

b.      a problem in recombinant DNA technology because they form loops of single-stranded DNA.

c.       double-stranded ends of a DNA segment created by some restriction enzymes.

d.      sites of the origin of replication in prokaryotes.

e.       sugar molecules that are bound to the ends of a DNA fragment.

17.Enzymes called ________ form breaks in DNA molecules to prevent overtwisting in the DNA helix during replication.

a.       topoisomerases

b.      single-strand binding proteins

c.       DNA polymerases

d.      RNA polymerases

e.       DNA ligases

18.What is the probability that two lizards that are heterozygous for striped tails (Ss) will produce an offspring that is homozygous for
no stripes (ss) on its tail?

a.       1

b.      1/2

c.       1/4

d.      1/8

e.       0

19.Crossing over occurs in which phase of mitosis?

a.       metaphase

b.      anaphase

c.       prophase

d.      telophase

e.       none of the above

20.Genes that encode proteins that are always needed are called

a.       repressible genes.

b.      promoter genes.

c.       constitutive genes.

d.      inducible genes.

e.       operons.

21.A polyribosome is

a.       a complex of many ribosomes and an mRNA.

b.      a complex of many ribosomes in eukaryotes.

c.       an initiation complex in eukaryotes.

d.      an elongation complex in eukaryotes.

e.       a complex of a ribosome with its two subunits and several mRNAs.

22.Which of the following statements concerning the cell cycle is FALSE?

a.       CDKs are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle.

b.      External factors are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle.

c.       CDKs are active only when they bind to cyclins.

d.      The amount of CDKs changes during the cell cycle.

e.       Several types of cyclin regulate different phases of the cell cycle.

23.How does the first nucleotide at the 5’ end of a new mRNA chain differ from the other nucleotides in the chain?

a.       The first nucleotide is always a uracil.

b.      The first nucleotide is always a cytosine.

c.       The first nucleotide retains its triphosphate group, while the others do not.

d.      The first nucleotide does not retain its triphosphate group, while the others in the chain do.

e.       The first nucleotide is always a modified cytosine.

24.A chromosome has the genes U, V, W, and X. They have been shown to have the following crossover frequencies: U and V: 2%; U and
W: 9%; U and X: 7%; V and W: 7%; V and X: 5%; and W and X: 2%. What is the sequence of the genes on the chromosome?

a.       W-X-V-U

b.      U-X-V-W

c.       X-W-U-V

d.      V-U-W-X

e.       none of the above

25.Why does DNA synthesis only proceed in the 5’ to 3’ direction?

a.       Because DNA polymerases can only add nucleotides to the 3’ end of a polynucleotide strand.

b.      Because the 3’ end of the polynucleotide molecule is more electronegative than the 5’ end.

c.       Because that is the direction in which the two strands of DNA unzip.

d.      Because that is the only direction that the polymerase can be oriented.

e.       Because the chromosomes are always aligned in the 5’ to 3’ direction in the nucleus.

26.Which of the following represents the sequence of events during mitosis?

a.       prophase → metaphase → anaphase → telophase

b.      interphase → metaphase → anaphase → telophase

c.       anaphase → telophase → metaphase → interphase

d.      interphase → prophase → anaphase → metaphase

e.       metaphase → telophase → anaphase → prophase

27.Random segregation refers to

a.       crossing over.

b.      regulation of mitosis.

c.       events during transduction.

d.      Barr bodies.

e.       paternal and maternal chromosomes.

28.Where is the amino-acid binding site located on the tRNA molecule?

a.       in the middle of the loop

b.      at the 3’ end of the molecule

c.       in the first loop

d.      along the longest stretch of base pairing in the molecule

e.       at the 5’ end of the molecule

29.During mismatch repair of DNA, the repair enzyme

a.       will remove several nucleotides on both DNA strands.

b.      will remove several nucleotides on one DNA strand.

c.       will remove only the mismatched nucleotide.

d.      will remove the mismatched nucleotide, and the same enzyme will replace it with the correct nucleotide.

e.       is unable to detect mutations.

30.Which of the following is TRUE regarding alternative splicing?

a.       It is very uncommon in humans.

b.      One strand of DNA can produce different mRNAs.

c.       Introns are often absent.

d.      As a result, the same proteins are produced in different cell types.

e.       All exons are used to produce m-RNA.

— End of Assignment 2B —

Case study 1 steve rogers and Selina kyle complete solutions correct answers key

 

1. Client Profile: Steve Rogers

27

Male

60 bpm

6′

178 pounds

11%

Steve is an avid runner and has been quite slim his whole life. He runs moderate- to long-distances 3 or 4 days per week. Running is his only physical activity. Steve has never been interested in resistance training because it is not his strong suit. Steve recently decided that he is tired of being skinny. He would like to put on some size and muscle before he travels back to his hometown for a good friend’s wedding in 12 weeks.

Client Calculations

·         Using the information above, calculate the client’s BMR and DCR

·         Calculate the client’s Target Heart Rate using the Karvonen formula (you will determine the appropriate target heart rate for this client given the information gathered in the initial assessment and evaluation)

Include the following in your case study submission:

·         A description of your professional responsibilities as discussed in the stages of the drawing-in process (Unit 12)

·         Discussion of any fitness tests, methods of evaluation, and data collection used to assess and evaluate the client’s needs.

·         Explanation for your recommendations and any specific conditions presented by your client that are found in the evaluation. (Be sure to reference course concepts when discussing rationale for your recommendations.)

·         A detailed 12-week comprehensive and periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. Use an integrated approach in your program recommendations.

·         Specific and detailed nutritional strategies with explanation as to how they will assist the client in meeting energy needs throughout the training program and achieving intended goal(s).

Keep in mind that a client should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you to clarify what you intended by your recommendations, or to explain parts of your program.

Include an explanation for WHY you listed and recommended what you did. Reference the concepts and theories covered in the course. Be sure to address why the program and exercises recommended are appropriate for the specific client given client history, current abilities, and intended goal(s). For example: if you are developing a program for a beginner client without any resistance training experience, explain how your program addresses the lack of experience, initial need for foundational development, process by which you would safely progress the client, etc. Tying your program to course concepts is a critical component of your case study.

 

2. Client Profile: Selina Kyle

31

Female

70 bpm

5’7″

159 pounds

33%

Selina just had her first baby a couple months ago and is determined to shed exess pregnancy pounds before Summer. Selina has very limited exercise experience. She did not play high school or college sports. Prior to having her first child, she did like to hike, go out dancing, and take the occasional yoga class. She is eager to start a program to lose the baby weight. She can dedicate 3 or 4 days per week to exercise and is willing to sign on for 12 weeks to start.

Client Calculations

·         Using the information above, calculate the client’s BMR and DCR

·         Calculate the client’s Target Heart Rate using the Karvonen formula (you will determine the appropriate target heart rate for this client given the information gathered in the initial assessment and evaluation)

Include the following in your case study submission:

·         A description of your professional responsibilities as discussed in the stages of the drawing-in process (Unit 12)

·         Discussion of any fitness tests, methods of evaluation, and data collection used to assess and evaluate the client’s needs.

·         Explanation for your recommendations and any specific conditions presented by your client that are found in the evaluation. (Be sure to reference course concepts when discussing rationale for your recommendations.)

·         A detailed 12-week comprehensive and periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. Use an integrated approach in your program recommendations.

·         Specific and detailed nutritional strategies with explanation as to how they will assist the client in meeting energy needs throughout the training program and achieving intended goal(s).

Keep in mind that a client should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you to clarify what you intended by your recommendations, or to explain parts of your program.

Include an explanation for WHY you listed and recommended what you did. Reference the concepts and theories covered in the course. Be sure to address why the program and exercises recommended are appropriate for the specific client given client history, current abilities, and intended goal(s). For example: if you are developing a program for a beginner client without any resistance training experience, explain how your program addresses the lack of experience, initial need for foundational development, process by which you would safely progress the client, etc. Tying your program to course concepts is a critical component of your case study.

 

Case Study 2 Diana Prince complete solutions correct answers key

 

Calculations: Calculate the client’s target heart rate using the Karvonen formula.

Training Program: Design a 12-week periodized training program for the client described in the Client Profile. Be very specific as you design the training program. This is an opportunity for you to demonstrate your full comprehension of the information and concepts discussed throughout the course. List the types of exercise, duration, sets, reps, rest intervals, and so on.

Include the following in your case study submission:

·         A description of your professional responsibilities as discussed in the stages of the drawing-in process (Unit 12)

·         Discussion of any fitness tests, methods of evaluation, and data collection used to assess and evaluate the clientÕs needs

·         Specific conditions that you have identified in the client profile

·         A detailed 12-week comprehensive and periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. Use an integrated approach in your program recommendations.

·         Specific and detailed nutritional strategies and an explanation as to how the strategies will assist the client in meeting energy needs

·         Explanation for your chosen assessment, programming, and nutritional recommendations. (Be sure to reference course concepts when discussing rationale for your recommendations.

Keep in mind that a client should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you to clarify what you intended by your recommendations or to explain parts of your program.

Don’t forget your explanation for WHY you listed and recommended what you did. Reference the concepts and theories covered in the course. Be sure to address why the program and exercises recommended are appropriate for the specific client given the clientÕs history, current abilities, and intended goal(s). For example: if you are developing a program for a beginner client without any resistance training experience, explain how your program addresses the lack of experience, initial need for foundational development, process by which you would safely progress the client, etc. Tying your program to course concepts is a critical component of your case study.

 

Review the Client Profile below.

Client Profile: Diana Prince

Age: 37

Gender: Female

Resting Heart Rate: 75 bpm

Height: 5’5″

Weight: 165 lb

Body Fat Percentage: 31%

Background and Goals: Diana is a 37-year-old mother of two children. She used to exercise fairly consistently (mostly jogging and light aerobic activities) before having kids. Ever since she had her first child 9 years ago, she has not been very active. Diana has her 20-year high school reunion coming up in 3 months (12 weeks). She would like to look and feel her best and is eager and willing to spend the next 12 weeks doing what she can to change her body.

 

Case study Jaime summers complete solutions correct answers key

 

Client Profile: Jaime Summers

Age

Gender

Resting Heart Rate

Height

Weight

Body Fat Percentage

53

Female

90 bpm

5’5″

165 pounds

35%

Jaime is a working mother of three teenagers. She has not been consistently active for many years. She was recently diagnosed with high blood pressure, likely caused by her high-stress corporate job and physical inactivity. She also has an affinity for processed and sugary foods. Jaime was recently told by her doctor that she needs to start exercising, eating better, and just simply taking better care of herself or else she on her way to additional health problems. Jaime will be attending her oldest daughter’s high school graduation in three months and wants to use the event as a goal date in which to make significant progress in her health.

Client Calculations

Using the information above, calculate the client’s BMR and DCR

Calculate the client’s Target Heart Rate using the Karvonen formula (you will determine the appropriate target heart rate for this client given the information gathered in the initial assessment and evaluation)

Include the following in your case study submission:

A description of your professional responsibilities as discussed in the stages of the drawing-in process (Unit 12)

Discussion of any fitness tests, methods of evaluation, and data collection used to assess and evaluate the client’s needs.

Explanation for your recommendations and any specific conditions presented by your client that are found in the evaluation. (Be sure to reference course concepts when discussing rationale for your recommendations.)

A detailed 12-week comprehensive and periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. Use an integrated approach in your program recommendations.

Specific and detailed nutritional strategies with explanation as to how they will assist the client in meeting energy needs throughout the training program and achieving intended goal(s).

Keep in mind that a client should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you to clarify what you intended by your recommendations, or to explain parts of your program.

Include an explanation for WHY you listed and recommended what you did. Reference the concepts and theories covered in the course. Be sure to address why the program and exercises recommended are appropriate for the specific client given client history, current abilities, and intended goal(s). For example: if you are developing a program for a beginner client without any resistance training experience, explain how your program addresses the lack of experience, initial need for foundational development, process by which you would safely progress the client, etc. Tying your program to course concepts is a critical component of your case study.

 

QuestionPart 1 of 1 –
Question 1 of 25
4.0 Points
Which of the following people is INCORRECTLY matched with his/her environmental contribution?
A.Rachel Carson: Silent Spring
B.John Muir: Sierra Club
C.Paul Ehrlich: The Population Bomb
D.Theodore Roosevelt: Civilian Conservation Corps
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 2 of 25
4.0 Points
DDT was sprayed in a Long Island salt marsh over a period of years for mosquito control. A portion of the food web is as follows:
algae -> shrimp-> American eel -> Atlantic needlefish -> ring-billed gull
In which organism would biological magnification be MOST evident?
A.American eel
B.Ring-billed gull
C.Algae
D.Shrimp
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 3 of 25
4.0 Points
Which of the following statements about biogeochemical cycles is true?
A.They only include processes conducted by or within living organisms.
B.They pertain only to the abiotic environment.
C.They describe the movement of water and other materials through an ecosystem.
D.They only pertain to exchanges and interactions that occur within the atmosphere.
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 4 of 25
4.0 Points
Which of the following would be a symptom of acute toxicity?
A.asthma
B.arthritis
C.dizziness
D.cancer
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 5 of 25
4.0 Points
Which of the following series is organized in successive steps according to the levels of organization used by ecologists?
A.population -> ecosystem -> community
B.population -> community -> ecosystem
C.species -> community -> biosphere
D.species -> ecosystem -> population
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 6 of 25
4.0 Points
Corporations and governments began to take NEPA seriously after which of the following events?
A.Further legislation was added to strengthen NEPA.
B.The publication of Rachel Carson’s book Silent Spring.
C.The creation of the EPA.
D.Environmental groups began suing individuals and organizations based on environmental impact statements.
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 7 of 25
4.0 Points
This figure BEST illustrates:

Graphic
A.how our atmosphere maintains its temperature.
B.how energy is recycled in an ecosystem.
C.the one-way flow of energy in an ecosystem.
D.the importance of decomposers in an ecosystem.
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 8 of 25
4.0 Points
The most common method of determining whether a chemical causes cancer is to expose groups of laboratory animals, such as rats, to various large doses and count how many animals develop cancer at the different levels. All of the following are problems with this approach in terms of understanding the health risks to humans EXCEPT:
A.This method is indirect and uncertain as human and rats are different organisms and may respond differently to exposure to the same chemical.
B.For expediting the research process, in lab settings rats are exposed to massive doses of suspected carcinogens relative to body size whereas humans are usually exposed to much lower amounts.
C.For ethical reasons, rats in lab settings are given very small doses of suspected carcinogens relative to body size whereas humans are usually exposed to much higher amounts
D.Risk assessment assumes that we can extrapolate from studies in rats to determine the expected rates of cancer in humans but extrapolating from one species to another and from one dose level to another is uncertain and may overestimate or underestimate a toxicant’s danger.
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 9 of 25
4.0 Points
How might the clearing of roads and pristine areas like the one shown below lead to an increase in infectious disease?
Graphic
A.Cars on the road can carry the diseases to cities.
B.Typhoid and cholera can spread from wild animals to drinking water.
C.The creation of drainage ditches provides habitat for disease carrying mosquitoes.
D.There is an increased risk of sewage leaking into the water supply.

Part 1 of 1 –
Question 10 of 25
4.0 Points
Which of the following statements BEST describes emerging diseases like swine flu?
A.Infectious diseases that were not previously found in humans and typically jump from an animal host to humans.
B.Infectious diseases that existed in the past but for a variety of reasons are increasing in incidence.
C.Infectious diseases that were previously found in humans and typically jump from a human host to animals.
D.Non-infectious diseases that have transformed into infectious diseases.
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 11 of 25
4.0 Points
Which of the following statements about dose-response curves is FALSE?
A.A dose-response curve shows the effect of different doses of a toxicant on a population.
B.Doses lower than the threshold level will have no measurable effect on organisms.
C.The smaller the LD50, the more toxic the chemical.
D.Studies of the dose-response curves of toxicants gives us assurance that for all chemicals there is a threshold level of the chemical so small amounts of chemical pollution pose no health risks
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 12 of 25
4.0 Points
Who wrote Man and Nature, one of the first books discussing human impact on global environmental change?
A.Paul Ehrlich
B.Rachel Carson
C.George Perkins Marsh
D.John Muir
Question 13 of 25
4.0 Points
Chemical A has a toxicity level of 1 and chemical B has a toxicity level of 2. If a mixture of the two chemicals has a toxicity level of 4, what can we say about the results of the mixture?
A.it was additive.
B.it was persistent.
C.it was synergistic.
D.it was antagonistic.
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 14 of 25
4.0 Points
Which of the following criticisms or backlash against the environmental movement in the 20th century are TRUE?
1. In the late 1990s some conservative research groups criticized what they perceived as a biased presentation of environmental issues, particularly the promotion of environmental activism, in schools.
2. Many economists such as Julian Simon have countered the dangers of overpopulation by pointing out that technological advances outpace the negative impacts of population growth.
3. Most of the world’s religions have rejected environmental themes by pointing out that such ideas are contrary to their religious teachings.
a) 1 only
b) 2only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 2
A.1 and 2
B.2 only
C.1 only
D.3 only
Question 15 of 25
4.0 Points
Which of the following processes plays an important role in the phosphorus cycle?
A.erosion
B.nitrogen fixation
C.combustion
D.cellular respiration
Question 16 of 25
4.0 Points
The nitrogen cycle is one of the most important and complex of the biogeochemical cycles. Why is nitrogen important?
A.It’s an Ozone depleting gas.
B.It’s an essential part of biological molecules such as proteins and nucleic acids (DNA)
C.It’s the most toxic element to living organisms
D.Nitrogen dilutes the oxygen in the atmosphere causing respiratory problems

Part 1 of 1 –
Question 17 of 25
4.0 Points
Herbivores are:
A.primary consumers
B.secondary consumers
C.decomposers
D.scavengers
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 18 of 25
4.0 Points
Which of the following statements about malaria is FALSE:
A.Road clearing in the Amazon has disrupted the natural environment and created habitat for the mosquito larvae to thrive.
B.Mosquitoes do not cause malaria but are the agents of transmission of the disease.
C.It is a non-transmittable disease caused by synthetic chemicals.
D.It is an infectious disease caused by a protozoan parasite.
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 19 of 25
4.0 Points
Which of the following would environmental economists consider natural capital?
A.Water purification by a cattail marsh.
B.A water treatment facility.
C.Increased agriculture made possible by irrigation.
D.A severe hurricane like Katrina.
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 20 of 25
4.0 Points
The soil conservation service was formed after what environmental crisis?
A.soil contamination by toxic waste at love Canal in the 1970s.
B.severe erosion following windstorms in the 1930s.
C.mudslides in California following the San Francisco Earthquake in 1906.
D.severe erosion following forest fires in Yellowstone National Park in the 1980s.
Part 1 of 1 –

Question 21 of 25
4.0 Points
Photosynthesis is:
A.A physical law, which states that when energy is converted from one form to another, some of it is degraded into heat, a less usable form that disperses into the environment.
B.The biological process that captures light energy and transforms it into the chemical energy of organic molecules, which are manufactured from carbon dioxide and water.
C.The measure of the amount of usable energy available to do work in the universe.
D.The process that involves potential energy being converted to kinetic energy.
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 22 of 25
4.0 Points
National income accounts are incomplete estimates of national economic performance because national income accounts do NOT include
A.gross domestic product
B.net domestic product
C.estimates of imported goods and services
D.estimates of external costs such as natural resource depletion and the environmental cost of economic activities
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 23 of 25
4.0 Points
Which of the following is an endocrine disrupter?
A.CFCs
B.mercury
C.ozone
D.carbon dioxide
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 24 of 25
4.0 Points
We measure toxicity by the dose at which adverse effects are produced. Which of the following statements about the dose of and response to toxic agents are true?
A.Lethal doses of particular toxicants for humans are known through doing laboratory tests on human subjects.
B.Doses are expressed in milligrams of toxicant per kilogram of body weight.
C.Sub-lethal doses usually produce acute toxicity whereas lethal doses produce chronic toxicity.
D.Response to a dose depends only on the type of toxicant and not the age or health of the organism.Reset Selection
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 25 of 25
4.0 Points
Why have some plants evolved mutualistic relationships with nitrogen-fixing bacteria?
A. The bacteria utilize nitrogen to produce energy for the plants; the plants provide the source of the nitrogen for the bacteria.
B. The bacteria transform nitrogen into forms useful forms for the plants; the plants provide water and a place for the bacteria to live.
C. The bacteria protect the plant from harmful effects of nitrogen compounds such as ammonia; the plants provide carbohydrates for the bacteria.
D. The bacteria provide natural immunities to the plants; the plants shelter the bacteria from predators.

 

Assignment 3: A New Strategy for Kodak
Due Week 9 and worth 300 points
Review Case 28 “The rise and fall of Eastman Kodak: Will it survive beyond 2012?” located in the textbook. Assume that you have been hired by Kodak as a business consultant to recommend a new corporate-level strategy for the company to improve declining sales, increase profitability, and expand the company to the Cloud service industry.
Write a five to seven (5-7) page paper in which you:
1. Establish five (5) key objectives for Eastman Kodak that encompasses the operational, financial, human resource aspects of the business. Next, argue that each of the established objectives is essential to the success of the company within the Cloud service industry.
2. Analyze Kodak’s horizontal and vertical integration strategy and determine the corporate level strategy that is more appropriate for the company to establish a competitive advantage in the Cloud service industry. Provide a rationale for the determination.
3. Determine five (5) ways in which pursuing a multi business model based on diversification may increase profitability for the company. Provide at least two (2) examples of such use of a multibusiness model from industry to support the rationale.
4. Recommend one (1) implementation strategy for Eastman Kodak that considers organizational design, strategic control systems, structure, and the type of organizational culture fitting for the organization and its new industry. Justify the recommendation.
5. Speculate on the way in which both the corporate-level strategy and the implementation strategy you recommended in Question 2 and Question 4 would support ethical business behaviors. Analyze the significant manner in which ethics, corporate social responsibility, and environmental sustainability impact the implementation of the strategies that you have recommended.
6. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar type Websites do not qualify as academic resources.