Day: April 27, 2018

1) Any organism that causes disease is classified as a(n)
(1pts)
pathogen.
mechanical vector.
antigen.
biological vector.
2) Immunity that develops over time due to exposure to various antigens is termed
(1pts)
adaptive immunity.
innate immunity.
coordinated immunity
learned immunity.
3) The core of the immune system is made up of
(1pts)
intact mucus membranes.
intact skin.
red blood cells.
white blood cells.
4) The first barrier to invasion is
(1pts)
antibody production.
intact skin and body cavity linings.
direct attack by white blood cells.
development of memory cells.
5) All but which of the following can be called a pathogen?
(1pts)
fungus
fly
virus
bacterium
6) The production site for white blood cells is the
(1pts)
spleen
bone marrow.
tonsils
liver
7) Lymph nodes enlarge during an infection because
(1pts)
they become infected.
lymphocytes destroy invaders inside of them.
they become clogged due to infections in the blood.
the body produces double the amount of lymph.
8) T cells multiply and become specialized in the
(1pts)
spleen.
thymus.
thyroid.
bone marrow.
9) Which chemical released by white blood cells causes arterioles to dilate?
(1pts)
complement
histamine
cytokines
interferons
10) Fever develops when ____ stimulate the brain to release prostaglandins.
(1pts)
histamines
complement
interferons
cytokines
11) Skin is a component of which type of immunity?
(1pts)
Adaptive
Innate
12) Cells produced by dividing B or T cells may be set aside for future responses to threat. These cells ‘remember’ the pathogen and are called
(1pts)
phagocytes.
fibroblasts.
effector cells.
memory cells.
13) Which is the first antibody secreted during immune responses and the first one produced by newborns?
(1pts)
IgD
IgM
IgA
IgG
14) Which antibody is involved in allergic reaction?
(1pts)
IgD
IgM
IgA
IgE
15) Natural Killer cells are
(1pts)
neutrophils
present outside of the lymphatic system only.
macrophages
detect and kill virus-infected body cells.
16) Plasma cells come from
(1pts)
T cells.
macrophages.
dendritic cells.
B cells.
17) How many different ‘types’ of Antibodies are there in the human body?
(1pts)
2
5
1
4
18) The purpose of a booster shot is to
(1pts)
counteract specific antigens in the system.
elicit a secondary response to an antigen.
elicit a primary response to an antigen.
re-establish the formation of antibodies.
19) Passive immunization
(1pts)
is used to prevent a person from becoming infected.
causes antibody formation.
is the same thing as immunotherapy.
is the administration of already formed antibodies from another source.
20) What is the name given to the chemicals which disrupt viral replication?
(1pts)
interferons
lymphokines
monoclonal antibodies
vaccine
21) Which of the following act as “filters” in the lymph system?
(1pts)
macrophages
lymph nodes
complements
immunoglobulins
22) The largest lymphoid organ is the
(1pts)
liver
thymus
tonsil
spleen
23)
The lymph vascular system begins at
(1pts)
the arterioles.
the heart.
the capillaries.
the arteries.
24) Which characteristic(s) of urine help it to bar pathogens from the urinary tract?
(1pts)
mucous production
a high pH
ammonia concentrations
a low pH
25) Which chemical released by white blood cells causes capillaries to leak?
(1pts)
complement
interferons
histamine
cytokines
26) Which of the following would NOT be an action of the complement system?
(1pts)
marking of pathogens for destruction by macrophages
attraction of phagocytes to the scene of pathogen invasion
trapping of pathogens in tangled protein threads
lysis of a pathogen’s membrane
27) The markers that identify an individual’s cells are referred to as Major Histocompatibility complexes, what are the letters that represent this complex?
(1pts)
RSW.
ADS.
HTC.
MHC.
28) Which cells make you immune to a disease that you were previously exposed to?
(1pts)
fibroblasts.
phagocytes.
effector cells.
memory cells.
29) Antigen-presenting cells include
(1pts)
monocytes, lymphocytes, and basophils.
neutrophils, monocytes, and eosinophils
macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells.
lymphocytes, basophils, and neutrophils
30) What stimulates activation of B and T cells?
(1pts)
lysozyme release
cell recognition of an antigen
production of complement
histamine production

Question

Biology 103

FINAL EXAMINATION, 2016

Name:____________________________________

Date: _________________________________

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: This final exam is worth 100 points.

There are three sections. The Multiple Choice section has 50questions worth 1 point each, for a total of 50 points. Fill-In the Blanks section has 7 questions for a total of 10 points. For the Short Answer section, you must choose to answer 8 of the 12 questions, and each question is worth 5 points, for a total of 40 points.

Multiple Choices:

Answer ALL of the questions in this section of the exam. Indicate your answer by highlighting your choice. Each question is worth 1 point.

1.Which of the following can be considered definitions of “theory”?

A)A theory can be an explanation of scientific laws.

B)A theory is an integrated explanation of numerous hypotheses, each supported by a large body of observations.

C)A theory is a condensation and simplification of many data that previously appeared unrelated.

D)A theory is a prediction for new data suggesting new relationships among a range of natural phenomena.

E)All of the above.

2. A gamate (cell) carries only one allele for each inherited character because the two alleles separate from each other during gamate production (meiosis). This statement defines

A) Monohybrid cross

B) Law of segregation

C) Genotype

D) Homologous chromosomes

E) All of the above

3.What is the correct sequence of steps in the scientific method?

I. State a problem

II. Analyze and interpret data

III. Develop a hypothesis

IV. Share the results with other scientists

V. Design and perform experiment to test the hypothesis

A)I – II -III -IV – V

B)III – I -V– II –IV

C)V – IV –III – II – I

D)I – III – V– II – IV

E)V – II –I – III -IV

4.To test a hypothesis about a given variable, experimental and control groups are tested in parallel. Which of the following best explains the dual experiments?

A)In the experimental group, a chosen variable is altered in a known way. In the control group, that chosen variable is not altered so a comparison can be made.

B)In the control group, a chosen variable is altered in a known way. In the experimental group, that chosen variable is not altered so a comparison can be made.

C)In the experimental group, a chosen variable plus all other variables are altered. In the control group, the chosen variable is altered; however, all other variables are held constant.

D)In the experimental and control groups, two different variables are altered.

E)Experimental and control groups experiments are identical and run in parallel to get repeatable results.

5. The smallest unit of life is the

A) cell

B) organelle

C) macromolecule

D) atom

6.You examine a cell under a microscope and you do not see a well defined nucleus. You conclude the cell must a _____________________ cell.

A) prokaryotic

B) eukaryotic

C) plant

D) animal

7. All of the following are examples of elements except?

A)oxygen

B) water

C) hydrogen

D)carbon

8.Two atoms with the same atomic number, but different mass numbers are called_________.

A)radioactive

B)isotopes

C)proteins

D)electrons

E)nuclei

9. Select the element that is not one of the four most common elements in living matter.

A)carbon

B)hydrogen

C)nitrogen

D)oxygen

E)phosphorous

10.Edward was found to heterozygous (Ss) for the sickle-cell trait. The alleles represented by the letters S and s are

A. on the X and Y chromosomes

B. linked

C. on homologous chromosomes

D. both are present in each of Edward’s sperm cells

E. none of the above

11.The building blocks of proteins are

A. fatty acids

B. amino acids

C. nucleotides

D. carbohydrates

12. A substance with a pH greater than 7 is ___, while a substance with a pH less than 7 is___.

A)basic, acidic

B)acidic, basic

C)basic, neutral

D)neutral, acidic

E)neutral, basic

13.The bond in which 2 atoms share one or more pairs of electrons is a ______________ bond.

A)polar

B)hydrogen

C)ionic

D)covalent

14.The energy required for photosynthesis is provided by?

A)proteins

B)sunlight

C)chlorophyll

D)carbohydrates

E)lipids

15.The term below that includes the other terms is

A)atom

B)molecule

C)electron

D)element

16.An element has 43 protons and 50 neutrons. The atomic number of the element is

A)43

B)50

C)86

D)93

E)100

17.The diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane is called ______.

A)facilitated diffusion

B)active transport

C)osmosis

D)phagocytosis

E)endocytosis

18.A dog gets many nutrients from its food including amino acids. Which of these can be built directly using the amino acids?

A)proteins

B)carbohydrates

C)lipids

D)nucleic acids

E)glucose

19.Most carbohydrates in the human body are ___________________________.

A)used as building blocks for proteins

B)used as catalysts for reactions in cells

C)consumed as a source of energy

D)not easily absorbed into the bloodstream

E)not necessary for regular bodily functions

20.A scientist removed the plasma membranes from bacteria cells in a culture. She analyzed the cell membranes for specific molecules. Which of these was probably the most common type of molecule present in the bacteria plasma membranes?

A)carbohydrate

B)nucleic acid

C)amino acid

D)lipid

E)ATP

21.The site of protein synthesis in the cell is ___________________________.

A)the mitochondria

B)the nucleus

C)the Golgi apparatus

D)the ribosomes

22.Cyanide is a poison that prevents mitochondria from using oxygen. As a result, the mitochondria cannot produce

A)lipids

B)proteins

C)energy

D)sugars

E)nucleic acids

23. The replication of DNA ___________________________________________.

A)produces RNA molecules

B)produces completely new strands of DNA

C)produces two DNA molecules, each of which is half-“new” and half-“old” DNA

D)generates excessive DNA, which eventually causes the nucleus to divide

24.The form of RNA that is complementary to DNA and carries the code from the DNA to the site where the protein is synthesized is

A)messenger RNA

B)nuclear RNA

C)ribosomal RNA

D)transfer RNA

25.If the amounts of bases in a DNA molecule are measured, you would find that

A)A = C and G=T

B)A = G and C=T

C)T = A and C =G

D)A = U and C=G

E)U = Cand A =G

26.In humans, the allele for dimples (D) is dominant.The allele for not having dimples (d) is recessive. If a woman (DD) and a man (Dd) have four children, how many of the children will not have dimples?

A)0

B) 1

C) 2

D) 3

E) 4

27.Which of these statements best explains how genes and proteins are related?

A)Genes are segments of DNA that code for proteins.

B) Proteins are segments of DNA that code for genes.

C) Genes are segments of proteins that code for DNA.

D) Proteins are the building blocks of genes.

E) Genes are the building blocks of proteins.

28.Which of the following could not be a sequence of RNA?

A)GCGUUU

B)UAUGCG

C)ATGCGT

D)AUGCGU

E)AAACUG

29.Information stored in DNA is transferred from the nucleus to the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells in the form of

A)lipids

B)DNA

C)RNA

D)proteins

E)carbohydrates

30.Researchers are studying slider turtles. Slider turtles hatch on the beach and travel to the sea. The researchers discover that the larger baby turtles were more likely to survive than the smaller baby turtles. They hypothesized that the larger turtles could move more quickly toward the water than the smaller turtles, and therefore, the larger turtles reduced their exposure to predators. The survival advantage for the larger baby turtles is a result of ______.

A)natural selection

B)genetic engineering

C)diversity

D)artificial selection

E)migration

31.The theory of natural selection states that

A) some live and some die in each generation.

B) only the largest and strongest survive.

C) random assortment of genes results in better characteristics in the following generations.

D)the best adapted individuals survive and reproduce, contributing the most genes to the next

generation.

E)individuals that mutate in response to their environment will survive.

32.Inheritable mutations, which may allow a population to evolve, are produced

A)by chance

B)as a response to environmental

C)as a response to selection pressure

D)by natural selection

E)by artificial selection

33.A man has type B blood and a woman has type A blood. Their children could have the following:

A. A,B, or O

B. AB only

C. AB or O

D. A, B, AB, or O

34.In a deciduous oak forest of the American northeast, one example of an abiotic component of the ecosystem would be ____________________________.

A)worms in the soil that feed on plant roots

B)worms in the soil that feed on dead organic matter

C)sunlight that filters through the canopy

D)animals such as deer that migrate through the forest but do not eat in the forest

E)plants and animals in the same area

35.Which of the following activities decreases greenhouse gases in the atmosphere?

A) Cutting down trees.

B)Driving gasoline powered vehicles.

C)Using electricity from coal-powered plants.

D) Planting trees.

E) Heating your home.

36. If a bird eats an insect that ate a plant, the bird would be considered a(n)

A)autotroph

B)primary producer

C)primary consumer

D)secondary consumer

E)tertiary consumer

37.When energy is converted from one form to another, some of the original energy is “lost” as

A)water

B)heat

C)electrons

D)mechanical energy

E)electrical energy

38.The statement best describes the relationship between plants and animals on earth is

A)plants produce O2and sugars from CO2

B)animals produce CO2and H2O from sugars and O2

C)plants produce O2and sugars and animals produce CO2and H2O

D)animals produce O2and sugars and plants produce CO2and H2O

39.What do plants and animals have in common?

A)They are both heterotrophic.

B)They are both autotrophic.

C)They are both prokaryotic.

D)They are both eukaryotic.

E)The are both hydrophobic

40.To convert RNA genome into DNA, the HIV virus uses the enzyme

A) DNA polymerase

B) DNA ligase

C) Reverse transcriptase

D) Protease

E) None of the above

41.Elephants travel long distances in search of food. Using vibrations felt in the ground, family members traveling separately can communicate with each other. Based on your knowledge of evolution, the ability to communicate over long distances probably developed__________.

A)slowly over millions of years

B)by accident

C)over a ten year period

D)as a strategy to decrease reproduction

E)as a way to communicate with humans

42.The plasma membrane is _____________________.

A)completely permeable

B)selectively permeable

C)impermeable

D)found only in eukaryotic cells

E)found only in prokaryotic cells

43. The electron transport system involve

A. electron transfer

B. enzymes, coenzymes

C. cell membranes

D. all of the above

44.Certain fungi that are important in nutrient recycling because they release nutrients from dead organisms back into the ecosystem are_____________________.

A)producers

B)consumers

C)decomposers

D)recyclers

E)feeders

45.Humans are ______.

A) ecosystems

B) consumers

C) decomposers

D) cells

E)producers

46.One of the end products of respiration is _____________.

A)glucose

B) starch

C)sucrose

D) water

E)oxygen

47. A protein molecule, which is denatured, has __________________________.

A)split into smaller molecules

B)changed its shape

C)combined with another molecule

D)been diluted

48.___________________ is the term that refers to the energy-requiring movement of a substance across a biological membrane.

A)facilitated diffusion

B)active transport

C)osmosis

D)diffusion

E)endocytosis

49.All of the following are characteristics of life except ____________________________.

A)growth

B)homeostasis

C)movement

D)reproduction

E)energy use

50.The regulation of gene expression must be more complex in multicellular eukaryotes than in prokaryotes because

A)eukaryotic cells are much larger

B)prokaryotes are restricted to more stable environments

C) in multicellular eukaryotes, different cells are specialized for different

functions

D)eukaryotes have fewer genes than prokaryotes so each gene must do more

than one function

E)all of these make sense

Fill-in each blank with the appropriate word(s) to complete the sentences. Each completed sentence is worth 1 point.

51. There are two major categories of cells. These categories are _______ cells, which include bacteria, and _________, which include fungi.

52. Tumors that remain at their site of origin are called sacromas while tumors from which cells migrate to other body tissues are called __________.

53. You are given one strand of DNA that has the sequence 5’GAATGC-3’. The complementary strand is _________.

54. The genetic makeup of an organism is called it________, while the physical traits of an organism are called its________.

55. __________ is the diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane.

56. The production of ATP in cells occurs primarily in the _________

57. ___________are the organelles in plant cells that store chlorophyll and perform photosynthetic reactions.

Answer ONLY 8 of the 12 essay questions.

Each question is worth 5 points. The full number of points will be awarded for accurate, correct, full, complete, and thorough answers. Partial credit will be awarded for less than accurate, correct, full, complete, and thorough answers so it is to your advantage to attempt an answer.

1. A population of grasshoppers in the Kansas prairie has two color phenotypes, green and brown. Typically, the prairie receives adequate water to maintain healthy, green grass. Assume a bird that eats grasshoppers moves into the prairie. How will this affect natural selection of the grasshoppers? How might this change in a drought year?

2. You are a writer for “Consumer Reports” magazine and you are asked to design an experiment to evaluate the effectiveness of three brands of whitening strips for teeth. Describe how you would do this using the Scientific Method. Include all of the steps, controls and variables.

3. Viruses are not considered to be living organisms. Name 4 characteristics you could identify to distinguish living organisms from viruses.

4. Explain the process of cell division in animals. Include a description of inter phase, mitosis and cytokinesis.

5. Suppose someone presented data from their research that showed the DNA of a newly discovered species was composed of: 30% adenine, 30% guanine, 20% thymine, 20% cytosine. Based on what you know about DNA structure, explain why these data do not make sense.

6. What are the differences between a covalent bond and an ionic bond?

7. Water is crucial for life as we know it. One of the most important characteristics of water is its ability to act as a solvent. Explain why water is such a good solvent for polar and charged molecules.

8. Suppose you are taking a cruise from California to Hawaii. About halfway there, the ship begins to sink. You are able to board a lifeboat, but now you are floating in the ocean waiting to be rescued. After several days, you are so thirsty that you bend over the side of the boat and drink lots of salty seawater. Explain what you think will happen to your body within a few hours of drinking the ocean water, and explain biological basis for your reaction.

9. What is DNA fingerprinting and explain how this could be used in court or on a TV show such as CSI?

10. DNA and RNA are similar yet distinct components of the cell. Describe three differences between RNA and DNA with respect to their chemical composition and structure. Provide a detailed description of each characteristic you chose in your response.

11. Why would you quickly die if not for the action of enzymes in your cells?

12. List the four “large molecules of life.” Identify their composition and structure, and describe one function they perform in the cell.

The global community is plagued by increasing incidence of lung cancer, colorectal cancer, breast cancer, pancreatic cancer, prostate cancer, leukemia, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, liver cancer, ovarian cancer, and esophageal cancer. Other types of cancer exist but are less frequent. What is the scientific community doing to attempt to eliminate the most common forms of cancer that are ravaging society?

 

1. Be certain that you have read your textbook’s chapter on cell division, specifically the last section on how cells become cancerous. This is context for completing this assignment.
2. Watch the presentation (found in the Reading & Study folder of Module/Week 4) entitled “Ways to Fight Cancer.” Notice that the presentation outlines essentially 3 approaches to fighting cancer: a) reduction of cancer risks, b) correction of cancer genes, and c) destruction of cancerous tissue.
3. In the “Individual Assignment 3: 10 Discoveries in the War on Cancer” document is a set of 10 scientists’ discoveries. Scan the discoveries briefly. Then open the assignment submission link in Module/Week 4. In the text box, number from 1 to 10 for the 10 discoveries listed in the document.
4. reducing cancer risks, (b) correcting/restoring cancer cells to normal, or (c) destroying cancerous tissue? After #1 in your list, place in parentheses the letter representing the approach to fighting cancer that will best be served by this new discovery. (More than Reflect carefully on the first discovery (#1). Would this discovery be more useful for (a) one approach may be served, but which is most likely to be helped most significantly?)

Individual Assignment 3: 10 Discoveries in the War on Cancer

1. Malignant brain tumors in adults are fast-growing cancers with median survival rates of 15 months, even with aggressive treatment. Researchers have been searching for genetic “signatures” (characteristic groups of cancer-causing genes) that could help in defining the kind of brain tumor the patient has. They hope to be better able to predict the course of the disease and the patient’s response to treatment.

 

1. Tobacco smoking is the leading cause of preventable deaths worldwide. It is a risk factor for lung cancer and several other types of cancer. Results of analysis of the entire human gene collection (the “genome”) support some previous findings that a region of human chromosome number 15 contains one or more genes that are associated with smoking intensity (the number of cigarettes smoked per day) and the closely related trait of nicotine dependency.
2. Immunologists are investigating ways to destroy lymphocytes (white blood cells of the immune system) that have become cancerous (lymphomas). A current drug, Rituxamab, contains antibodies that bind to the surfaces of these lymphocytes, setting them up for destruction by the cancer patient’s own immune system. They are currently seeking ways to modify the antibody’s structure so that it will attract the cancer patient’s “natural killer” (NK) cells to the lymphocytes. Success of this project will bring a multifaceted immune response against lymphomas and hasten their destruction.
3. Virologists are modifying lentiviruses as vectors for carrying proto-oncogenes into cancer-transformed cells in culture. They are developing this virus for inserting the ras proto-oncogene directly into its correct location in the genome. The correct ras gene will already be linked to human DNA to either side of it and complexed with a recombination enzyme that will insert it into its correct location within the human genome. At the same time, the recombination enzyme will excise the defective oncogenic form of ras. The cells in culture should again come under normal hormonal control and require extra-cellular signals in order to continue dividing.
4. Immunologists are working with a mutation (HER2) that is expressed on the surface of many breast, bladder, pancreatic, and ovarian cancer cells. They have made antibodies against this mutant surface protein. These antibodies have been covalently bonded to a “gene expression vector” that makes cells light up when incubated with luciferin from fireflies. The vector takes the gene for luciferin into the cancer cells. The researchers have shown that their antibody can accurately find and light up cancer cells. Their next step is to bond the antibody to an expression vector that carries the normal HER2 gene into mutant cancer cells.

 

1. Biochemists have discovered a protein kinase enzyme named BRAF that is an important link in a molecular pathway that causes a cell to divide. Normally BRAF responds to signals coming from outside the cell—signals calling for the cell to divide normally under normal conditions. But there is a mutation in BRAF enzymes that causes it to activate the cell toward division continually. In this way it results in melanomas, thyroid, and ovarian cancers. Biochemists have also found a drug, vemurafenib, that binds selectively to mutant BRAF, totally inactivating it. Cells that have inactivated BRAF undergo apoptosis, a process that leads to cell death.
2. Organic chemists are exploring structural variations of the organic compound avobenzone (1-(4-Methoxyphenyl)-3-(4-tert-butylphenyl) propane-1,3-dione) for inclusion in sunblock products. Avobenzone is known for its ability to absorb a broad spectrum of ultraviolet radiations, including UVB light (known to enhance the frequency of basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas [skin cancers]) and UVA rays (thought to increase the frequency of melanoma cancers). New variations in the structure of avobenzone are hoped to retain the ability to absorb harmful UV radiation while having an increased stability in the presence of that radiation.

 

1. Molecular biologists have taken nanoparticle-sized spheres and used them to deliver a cell-killing toxin from bee venom to tumors in mice, substantially reducing tumor growth without harming normal body tissues. Nanoparticles are known to concentrate in solid tumors because blood vessels in tumors show “enhanced permeability and retention effect,” or EPR. Hence, substances such as nanoparticles escape more readily from the bloodstream into tumors and the generally poor drainage of lymph from tumors further helps trap the particles in tumor tissue.

 

1. Biochemists are analyzing the many, many components of red meat (beef, pork) to determine which component, if any, will cause increased colorectal cancer rates in mice when the component is administered orally. Studies have shown that higher colorectal cancer rates in humans are associated with higher consumption rates of red meat.

 

1. Molecular biologists have developed a new sequence of human genes called an ankyrin insulator sequence. You place a new, corrected, or therapeutic gene within this sequence. Its role is to create an active area on a human chromosome where the new gene can work efficiently no matter what chromosome it lands on.
2. this analysis for each of the remaining 9 discoveries. Return to the “Ways to Fight Cancer” presentation as needed for additional perspective. When finished, your entire text box must be simple: a numbered (1–10) list of letters a, b, or c.
3. Seven points are granted for each correct association, up to 8 correct. If you get any 9 correct out of 10, you get a perfect score (60 points) on the assignment. Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week

Liberty University BIOL101 Individual Assignment 1 complete solutions correct answers key

Many of you have spent hours thinking about why human beings exist. Most of you are very satisfied with the biblical answers to that question. However, entertain this question for a few moments: Why do all the life forms other than man exist? Why are they all here?

 

Evaluate and analyze the arguments in the presentation “Biblical Basis of Life’s Significance,” found in the Reading & Study folder of Module/Week 1. Construct a single sentence of 40 words or less. Include within it 4 carefully crafted and concise phrases that argue that life forms other than man are significant—they were worth creating. Start your sentence with the words:

 

“Life forms are significant because…”

 

Then add the 4 phrases, separating each with a comma. Order your phrases such that the most significant comes first and the least significant comes last.

 

Your assignment:

 

1. Write out your masterful sentence.
2. The sentence must be submitted through the appropriate assignment link and must not be submitted as an attached document, but entered into the text box provided.

Liberty University BIOL101 Individual Assignment 1 complete solutions correct answers key

Many of you have spent hours thinking about why human beings exist. Most of you are very satisfied with the biblical answers to that question. However, entertain this question for a few moments: Why do all the life forms other than man exist? Why are they all here?

 

Evaluate and analyze the arguments in the presentation “Biblical Basis of Life’s Significance,” found in the Reading & Study folder of Module/Week 1. Construct a single sentence of 40 words or less. Include within it 4 carefully crafted and concise phrases that argue that life forms other than man are significant—they were worth creating. Start your sentence with the words:

 

“Life forms are significant because…”

 

Then add the 4 phrases, separating each with a comma. Order your phrases such that the most significant comes first and the least significant comes last.

 

Your assignment:

 

1. Write out your masterful sentence.
2. The sentence must be submitted through the appropriate assignment link and must not be submitted as an attached document, but entered into the text box provided.

1. Should stewardship principles be taught in the Church?

 

Following a morning church service, you enter the foyer and overhear a discussion that you decide to join.

 

Bert: …so we really, really need to get the message out to the world that we are selfishly ruining our environment. Politically important people are exploiting poor people and the environment itself. This is not what Jesus would do.

 

Herbie: Well, I think Jesus went about teaching the Kingdom of God, not saving the environment. When people are walking down a road that leads to continuous torment and death, how much time should you spend teaching them to repair the road they’re walking on? These issues are distracting.

 

Sally: Well, regardless of which road you’re walking on, you make little choices each day about how you will walk that road.

 

Bert: Good point. Jesus walked that road. He probably had one suit, simple food, a borrowed mattress to sleep on, and no recreational vehicle to drive. So He was making choices that we don’t think about enough.

 

Herbie: (sigh…) To get people to think about those choices, you have to change their hearts first. You must communicate the gospel to people. When they are healed, then the Spirit of Christ will point them to less ecologically extravagant choices.

 

Sally: But Herbie, is that really happening in our churches? Are new converts just naturally choosing more environmentally responsible patterns? Don’t we need to help them with this? Jesus said to make disciples. Doesn’t that mean teaching them on a variety of issues?

 

Bert: If we’re visibly out there being environmentally protective and responsible, people will ask: “Why is your church doing this stuff?” It will just be natural to share our story of conversion to following Christ and caring about the new priorities He builds into our hearts.

 

Herbie: Bert, I don’t think people will ask that question. They will assume we’re selfishly trying to save the turf we live on just like some of them do. It’s like, you’re doing a good thing but there’s nothing particularly spiritual about it. The world wants to save the planet. We want to save people.

 

Sally: Herbie, I think God wants us to do both. So, how do we get the world to see us making good environmental choices while they hear us proclaiming salvation through Christ and new life in Him?

 

 

You decide to chime in, but which response below is yours, a) or b)?

 

a)      We really need to focus on our original mandate from Jesus: preaching the gospel. As people come to faith in Christ, many questions including some regarding environmental issues may arise and we can answer their questions naturally as they come up, one-on-one.

 

b)      We need to “go into the world and make disciples.” As people come to faith in Christ, we must begin to disciple them. They must be taught how their faith in Christ as Redeemer and Creator applies to their use of the environment. This is just part of the whole picture.

 

In Blackboard, open the assignment link. Within the text box, type a “1.” followed by either a) or b) above, depending on which response you agree with. Then, add a single densely-crafted sentence (about 20 words) defending your choice while modifying it slightly if you wish to. Then, keep reading:

 

Herbie has left the discussion a bit frustrated. His wife is anxious to get to the restaurant they have reservations at. Ethel hears people talking and decides to come over and join in.

 

1. How would you teach stewardship principles in the Church?

 

Sally: What if we start a new Sunday morning focus group before church where we could talk about these issues—you know—define them a bit and air them out?

 

Bert: No, no, no, no…The worst offenders will not join that group. We need to get Pastor Bob to do a sermon series on it so that the right people get the message. This has to be a revolution in the church’s consumerist thinking. The point has to be boldly made and made to everybody.

 

Sally: Well, why Pastor Bob? He has to live with us. Why don’t we get in a special speaker like Sleeth or DeWitt and have them do a series of three or four talks on a Sunday evening? We could add food and other enticements to get people out.

 

Ethel: Wait a minute…wait…just a minute! If you’re going to try to get everybody to wear blue jeans and old shirts and live in a tent in February, you’re going to divide this church right down the middle. And I know which side I’ll be on. Why should I stop wearing makeup because some biblical illiterate has just pronounced it wrong!

 

Bert: No, no, no…Ethel, we’re not talking about stepping on people’s biblical freedoms. This can’t be a “style” issue. But there are very basic stewardship principles that have to be taught. It’s the principles that need exposure. God’s Spirit will then lead individual people further into applying those principles.

 

Sally: Bert….that sounds like Herbie. Don’t we need to present at least some specifics?

 

Bert: So you want Amish buggies instead of cars because a horse is more efficient than an engine?

 

Sally: Well…maybe we could start with some easy things everyone could do, like buying less stuff and finding ways to reduce power consumption at home.

 

Ethel: OK…yeah…I could see a bit of that. It would save some money too, probably. George keeps saying we should give more to the missionaries…I get sick of hearing it.

 

Bert: But, Herbie has a point. How can we forcefully get basic stewardship principles out there to the entire congregation without making seekers and new converts think that this is our central focus? There must be a way to do this.

 

Sally: Bert, I was thinking: most of the poorer people in town that we say we want to reach for Christ are probably living more simply than many of us. I think they resent us for our extravagance. Our gospel needs some credibility in this area. I think we look selfish.

 

Ethel: Well…well…maybe you could work the whole environment thing into a focus on helping some Ugandan orphanage or something. George breaks my heart with these orphan stories. We could save money here and donate it there along with the gospel. If it has anything to do with missions, George will drag me to it. Well actually…that’s not fair. I’d be interested in it myself.

 

You (chiming in again with one of the comments below): “I have an idea.”

 

a)      Let’s get together at Herbie’s place and discuss it further. He had some good points and I fear that this new teaching will get us all distracted from a bigger evangelistic goal that we’re really not dealing with very well.

 

b)      I found this Christian website called Woodlakebooks.com. They’ve got good special group studies we could adopt for a “come if you want” 9-week focus group. We could meet just with interested people during a non-worship-service time. We could start our own little stewardship project and get the pastor to update the congregation on what we’re doing.

 

c)      Hey, Parish Publishing in New England makes weekly bulletin inserts that we could use over the long term. Everybody would get them, so we could sort of press the issue on people a bit. We could use them to invite interested people to an ongoing focus group on the subject. A missions project could be an outlet for the money we save.

 

d)     We need to get Pastor Bob excited about this or it will appear divisive. Phil knows him really well. Phil could get him to do some topical sermons on stewardship and how it relates to our message of salvation, maybe in a special Sunday night teaching series.

 

e)      Hey, Phil has graduate degrees from seminary and from Liberty University in environmental management. Maybe Pastor Bob would let Phil do a few successive Sunday morning teaching sessions during the worship hour. We could get the congregation to understand a little of the science behind caring for the earth.

 

f)       We need Pastor Bob and Phil to build a money bridge. They need to use worship service time to get us involved with a third-world evangelism and service project. They could convince people that our own environmental stewardship could help fund it all. Once people see the connection, we can start the stewardship classes to show people how to save money and contribute.

 

In the assignment text box, type a “2.” followed by 1 of the lettered choices above, depending on which response you agree with. Then, add a single densely-crafted sentence (about 20 words) that either

 

·         explains why you have selected this option

or

·         improves on the position you have selected

 

Bert has left the discussion reluctantly. His wife reminded him that the walk home takes 10 minutes and the bean casserole has now started cooking. The kids are hungry. Cal Lorrie, a nutritionist, has been listening to this conversation and decides to join in.

 

1. Does environmental stewardship affect what I eat?

 

Ethel: Gee, maybe those third-world orphans I spoke of are already the environmentally responsible people. I mean, they surely lean less heavily on the environment than we do. Don’t they? Really, I just couldn’t live like that…

 

Cal: One huge area of environmental stewardship involves what you choose to eat. Some third-world tribal groups probably eat mostly what they hunt and kill and do very little with vegetation unless the hunting fails for some reason.

 

Sally: Why would you mention that? Isn’t a vegetarian diet just a choice you make because it may be healthier for you?

 

Ethel: Oh, here we go…celery and water…

 

Cal: It’s more than nutrition. It’s a food web concept. When you get your protein from beef, or worse, from shellfish, you eat higher and higher in the food web. More calories are expended to get protein from shrimp than from beans and rice.

 

Ethel: Oh Cal, protein is protein. Doesn’t it cost the same amount to make the same quantity of protein?

 

Sally: I should have taken that BIOL 101 online course that Liberty University was offering…

 

Cal: The shrimp swims around, actively feeds, escapes predators, and has a high metabolic rate. It uses lots more calories than a bean plant just getting its protein to you.

 

Ethel: (sigh…) You want the church to do beans and rice at the next church dinner? With perhaps a bit of water?

 

Cal: The issue is balance. An uncritical vegetarian will actually be malnourished in certain ways. But most of our church members probably do way too much with meat. You have to give a whole lot of “Corn-Flake-level calories and protein” to a steer to get far less steak protein. So with the steak, you are taking far more from the environment.

 

Sally: My cousin Atkins is on a high-protein diet to try to lose weight. Are you saying that’s misguided?

 

Cal: Oh, he’ll probably lose some weight for biochemical reasons. But ecologically, the high-protein diets are most successful in America because we have the money to spend to eat higher in the food web.

 

Sally: We really need to get this information into the hands of our church people. This would give them two independent reasons to do a more balanced diet.

 

Ethel: Sorry. Talk all you want to. My George will have a good-sized piece of beef every night for dinner. We’re past the hot dog stage of life and he certainly won’t let me switch out beef with veggie burgers!

 

You (make another choice; what would you like to say?): “Hmmm…”

 

a)      Sally, I think Ethel’s right. We really ought to look for less intrusive ways to become ecologically friendly. Pushing on people about their diets is just going to dump a whole lot of unbiblical guilt on people, but they won’t budge. The Bible says we can do either meat or vegetables…

 

b)      I know! There are lots of good recipes/cookbooks out there that are done by people who want to eat lower in the food web. We could wholesale a bunch of them and put them on a stand in the church lobby. That would make a neat statement and income could go toward a third-world help project.

 

c)      Well, Ethel, what about just sharing basic food web concepts that Phil would know about? Then individual members can respond as God leads them to. That might only take 3–4 sessions. We could do it as part of a weekend thing, but have the last session be a review session on Sunday morning so exposure is broad.

 

d)     Ethel, you mentioned church suppers. Let’s have a seminar series on eating carefully within our food web and show people, calorie for calorie, how their restraint would feed orphan children in Uganda. The last seminar would be a church dinner using recipes that are lower on the food web. That way, lots of people could make a choice that keeps little children alive.

 

 

There are differing degrees of dietary stewardship implied in the choices above. In the assignment text box, type a “3.” followed by 1 of the lettered choices above, depending on which response you agree with. Then, add a single densely-crafted sentence (about 20 words) that either

 

·         explains why you have selected this option

or

·         improves on the position you have selected

 

Submit your assignment when finished.

 

Note: Many food consumption variables exist which have not been discussed:

 

a)      If I eat some raw foods, energy isn’t needed to cook them.

 

b)      If I eat at a restaurant, the environment has to support the staff that waits on me, the builders who built the restaurant, the workers who maintain the facility, etc.

 

c)      If I buy locally, less energy is used to get the food to me.

 

d)     If I eat simpler foods, less energy is used to process the foods (corn and chicken vs. “corndogs” manufactured two states away and refrigerated all the way

Question

QUESTION 1

Match the nutrient with the food source. (Note: there is more than one correct answer)

 

 

Protein
Lactose
Fructose
Fiber
Saturated fatty acid
Unsaturated fatty acid
trans fatty acid
Omega-3 fatty acid
Cholesterol
Vitamin A
A.

smoked salmon

B.

steak

C.

multi-grain bread roll

D.

carrots

E.

margarine

F.

olive oil

G.

whole milk

H.

peanuts

I.

strawberries

10 points

QUESTION 2

To make the meal below a vegetarian meal you would need to leave out the _____?
steak with side of pasta with lentils, peas, carrots and melted butter

4 points

QUESTION 3

The meal below could be a problem for people with common food allergies or intestinal disorders. Identify TWO food items and their respective food allergy/intestinal disorder.
Grilled chicken and pasta with lentils, peas, a glass of milk, and yogurt with peanuts and strawberries.
(extra credit for identifying more than two food items that can trigger allergies/intestinal disorders)

10 points

QUESTION 4

Protein digestion begins in the ___

Mouth
Esophagus
Stomach
Small Intestine
Large intestine
5 points

QUESTION 5

Registered dietitians strongly recommended that most athletes consume protein supplements.

True

False

4 points

QUESTION 6

Saturated fatty acids are ___ healthy than unsaturated fatty acids
more

Less

4 points

QUESTION 7

You have discovered that your LDL level is 200 mg /dL and your HDL is 40 mg /dL. What should you do to become more healthy?
Lower your LDL and HDL
Lower your LDL and raise your HDL
Raise your LDL and lower your HDL

Raise your LD and raise your HDL

Nothing. This is a healthy cholesterol level
5 points

QUESTION 8

_____ is an example of a fat soluble vitamin.

4 points

QUESTION 9

Boiling vegetables reduces their vitamin content.
True

False

4 points

QUESTION 10

Some vitamins can be destroyed by exposure to heat, light, or air.

True

False

4 points

QUESTION 11

Match the vitamin to the respective deficiency disorder.
Vitamin A
Vitamin D
Vitamin K

Thiamin
Niacin
Vitamin B-12
Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid)
A.

Scurvy

B.

Pernicious anemia

C.

Night blindness

D.

Beriberi and Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

E.

Excessive Bleeding

F.

Rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults

G.

Pellagra

14 points

 

QUESTION 12

Match the mineral on the left to the description on the right.
Calcium (Ca)
Sodium (Na)
Potassium (K)
Iron (Fe)
A.

Deficiency can lead to irregular heartbeats and muscle cramps

B.

Structural component of bones and teeth

C.

Deficiency can lead to fatigue and low hemoglobin levels.

D.

Excessive amounts can contribute to hypertension

 

8 points

 

QUESTION 13

Which organ plays a key role in water conservation?
Liver
Small Intestine
Kidneys
Pancreas
5 points

QUESTION 14

Drinking too much water can also be unhealthy, resulting in coma or even death in extreme cases.

True

False
4 points

QUESTION 15

Briefly, describe one method for estimating a person’s amount of body fat.

5 points

QUESTION 16

Harry and Ron both weigh 140 lb, but Ron is shorter than Harry. Thus, Ron would have _____ BMI.

a higher
a lower
the same
5 points

QUESTION 17

Brown fat cells are specialized to
store glycogen
metabolize fat to generate heat
store fat.
metabolize amino acids.
5 points

QUESTION 18

Christina is a 21-year-old woman. Her percentage of body fat is 25%, which is considered ___.

too low
healthy
too high
4 points

QUESTION 19

Jason consumes 4,000 kcal/day and burns 2,000 kcal/day. Jason thus would have a ____ energy balance.
positive
neutral
negative
5 points

QUESTION 20

Name one health problem that is associated with overweight and obesity._____.
5 points

QUESTION 21

Which of the following is the hormone that is secreted by the stomach and increases hunger?
Trypsin
Ghrelin
Insulin
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
5 points

QUESTION 22

Skipping breakfast can lower your metabolic rate.
True

False

4 points

QUESTION 23

Which of the following activities is generally classified as aerobic?
Strength training
Lap swimming
Playing golf
Gardening
5 points

QUESTION 24

Regular exercise does not help with weight loss, because you just end up eating more.

True

False

4 points

QUESTION 25

All weight supplements advertised on TV are safe and effective.
True

False

4 points

QUESTION 26

Greg is a 20 yrs old male. What should be his target heart rate for a moderate-intensity workout?

60 bpm
100 bpm
160 bpm
220 bpm

5 points

QUESTION 27

What molecule is the main energy source for all cells?

Lactic acid
ATP
Triglycerides
DNA

5 points

QUESTION 28

Which nutrient should you eat after completing an intense workout to restore your stores of glycogen?
Carbohydrates
Fats
Proteins

5 points

QUESTION 29

Proteins are normally the primary energy source during vigorous exercise.

True

False

4 points

QUESTION 30

_____ is a common symptom of food-poisoning.

5 points

QUESTION 31

Drinking water from a lake can most likely expose you to which food-borne pathogen?
E. Coli
Rotavirus
Giardia
C. botulinum
5 points

QUESTION 32

The FDA permits food to contain small amounts of insect parts, because contamination is difficulty to completely avoid.

True

False

4 points

QUESTION 33

You want to stock your home for a possible emergency situation. Would 1 gallon of water be sufficient to keep one person fully hydrated for 4 days?
Yes
No

4 points

QUESTION 34

Nutritional deficiencies are most likely to affect human development during the ___ trimester.
first
second
third
fourth
5 points

QUESTION 35

______ is a possible side effect of the early pregnancy (first trimester). (There are several potential correct answers, please name only one.)
5 points

QUESTION 36

Rapid, excessive weight gain after the fifth month of pregnancy could be a sign of _______.
Spina Bifida
Celiac disease
Low blood pressure
Preeclampsia
5 points

QUESTION 37

What are the TWO advantages of breastfeeding over formula milk?
10 points

QUESTION 38

____ is a common sign of a food allergy in infants

5 points

QUESTION 39

Which of the following is safe feed to a 2 month old infant?
Chicken nuggets
Soda (Pop)
Honey
All of the above
None of the above
5 points

QUESTION 40

What is one possible problem with drinking caffeinated beverages while excersing?